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11351.

Products contaminated by radionuclides including radioactive diagnostic material or radiotherapeutic materials; and Non-hazardous or general waste: waste that does not pose any biological, chemical, radioactive, or physical hazards- Identify the waste material. a) Infectious waste b) Radioactive waste c) Pharmaceutical waste d) Chemical waste

Answer»

Correct option: b) Radioactive waste

11352.

Which of the following statements regarding protons are correct? a. They have a negative charge b. They are equal to the number of electrons in a non-ionized atom c. They are equal to the atomic number in a non-ionized atom d. They have no mass e. They increase in number relative to neutrons, following electron capture

Answer»

a. False. Protons have a positive charge. Electrons have a negative charge. 

b. True. 

c. True. Protons (atomic number (Z)) þ neutrons (A – Z) ¼ mass number (A)). 

d. False. Both protons and neutrons have a mass. Electrons have a negligible mass. 

e. False. Following electron capture the nucleus may increase its number of neutrons relative to protons by capturing an electron from the K-shell (p + þ  e n) 

11353.

Which of the following options is not correct regarding the order of the frequency of electromagnetic radiation?A. `Radio waves lt microwaves lt X-rays`B. `Green light lt U-V light lt`gamma`-radiation `C. `Far infra red gt Radio waves gt Cosmic ray`D. Microwaves lt Near Infrared ray lt U-V rays

Answer» Correct Answer - C
11354.

Regarding electromagnetic beam radiation: a. Energy fluence is the number of photons per unit area of a beam b. Beam intensity is the total amount of energy per unit area travelling per unit time c. Wavelength is inversely proportional to frequency d. Frequency is inversely proportional to photon energy (keV) e. Photon energy is inversely proportional to wavelength 

Answer»

a. False. Photon fluence is the number of photons through a cross-section of the beam (i.e. per unit area). Adding the particle energies gives the total amount of energy per unit area and is called energy fluence.

b. True. 

c. True. Wavelength is the distance between crests, when field strength is plotted against distance. Frequency multiplied by wavelength equals velocity (λ x  f V) 

d. False. Frequency is proportional to photon energy; the content of proportionality is called Planck’s constant. 

e. True.

11355.

Regarding radioactivity: a. Decay of radionuclides with a neutron excess produces a daughter nucleus with a higher atomic number b. The rate of decay can be increased by heating the radionuclide c. Isomers have the same half-life d. Decay of radionuclides with a neutron deficit produces a daughter nucleus with a lower atomic number e. Positron annihilation results in energy being converted to mass

Answer»

a. True. This is known as beta-negative (b) decay and results in the conversion of a neutron to a proton, therefore increasing atomic number. 

b. False. The rate of decay is dependent on the characteristic of the radionuclide and is unaffected by factors such as heat or chemical reactions. 

c. False. Isomers have differing half-life and energy states, but the same atomic and mass numbers. 

d. True. This can occur either by beta-positive (b+) decay or K-electron capture, both of which result in the reduction of the number of protons and therefore atomic number. 

e. False. Positrons collide with negative beta particles resulting in the two masses being converted to energy.

11356.

Concerning radiation damage to tissues, which of the following are correct?  a. It is caused directly by photo electrons b. Cells with high mitotic rates are less affected c. It is caused by free radicals d. Secondary electrons cause damage to tissue in a linear pattern e. It is caused directly by X-rays

Answer»

a. True. When secondary electrons (e.g. photo electrons and recoil electrons) pass through tissue, they result in ionization and excitation of atoms resulting in tissue damage. 

b. False. Cells with higher mitotic levels are more prone to radiation damage. 

c. True. Ionization by secondary electrons, results in damage to biological tissue either by rupturing covalent bonds or by the production of free radicals, which result in oxidation of organic molecules. 

d. False. Secondary electrons have a tortuous path, as negative electrons easily deflect them, leaving a track of ionized atoms behind. 

e. False. X-rays and gamma rays result in ionization of atoms via secondary electrons and are therefore indirectly ionizing agents.

11357.

The binding energy of electrons: a. Is the energy expended in moving an electron from an inner to an outer shell b. Is higher for an L-shell electron than an M-shell electron c. Is influenced by the number of neutrons within an atom d. Determines Bremsstrahlung photon energy e. Determines the energy of the photo electron produced following photoelectric absorption

Answer»

 a. False. Binding energy is the energy expended in completely removing the electron from the atom, against a positive force of the nucleus. 

b. True. The nucleus exerts a stronger pull on the inner electrons than the outer electrons. 

c. False. Neutrons have a charge of zero and hence do not affect the binding energy of electrons. 

d. False. Bremsstrahlung radiation is produced from filament electrons that penetrate the K-shell and approach the nucleus. Characteristic radiation is formed when an electron shifts from an outer to an inner shell, releasing a photon with energy equal to the difference in the binding energy of the two shells. 

e. True. In photoelectric absorption, when a photon collides with an electron from an inner shell, it ejects the electron, which is then termed a photo electron. Kinetic energy of photo electron (Ek for K-shell) = photon energy – binding energy.

11358.

Two impedances Z1 and Z2 when connected separately across a 230-V, 50-Hz supply consumed 100 W and 60 W at power factors of 0.5 lagging and 0.6 leading respectively. If these impedances are now connected in series across the same supply, find : (i) total power absorbed and overall p.f. (ii) the value of the impedance to be added in series so as to raise the overall p.f. to unity

Answer»

Inductive Impedance V1 I cos φ1 = power; 230 × I1 × 0.5 = 100 ; I1 = 0.87 A 

Now, I12 R1 = power or 0.872 R1 = 100; R1 = 132 Ω ; Z1 = 230/0.87 = 264 Ω 

XL = √(Z21 - R21) = √(2642 - 1322) = 229Ω

Capacitance Impedance I2 = 60/230 × 0.6 = 0.434 A ; R2 = 60/0.4342 = 318 Ω

Z2 = 230/0.434 = 530 Ω ; XC = √(5302 - 3182) = 424Ω (capacitive)

When Z1 and Z2 are connected in series 

R = R1 + R2 = 132 + 318 = 450 Ω; X = 229 − 424 = − 195 Ω (capacitive)

Z = √(R2 + X2) = √(4502 + (-195)2) = 490 , 230 / 490 0.47 A

(i) Total power absorbed = I2R = 0.472 × 450 = 99 W, cos φ = R/Z = 450/490 = 0.92 (lead) 

(ii) Power factor will become unity when the net capacitive reactance is neutralised by an equal inductive reactance. The reactance of the required series pure inductive coil is 195 Ω.

11359.

Which of the following are correct regarding electromagnetic radiation? a. Gamma rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation b. The particles have a mass equivalent to that of neutrons c. In a vacuum, the velocity of the particles differs depending on their individual properties d. It results in a sinusoidal graph when magnetic field strength is plotted against time e. The frequency is the interval between two successive crests

Answer»

a. True. Electromagnetic radiation is named according to how it is produced, e.g. X-rays (X-ray tube), gamma rays (radioactive nuclei). 

b. False. The different types of electromagnetic radiation differ in their properties and are made up of photons, which do not have a mass or electric charge. 

c. False. All forms of electromagnetic radiation travel with the velocity of light in a vacuum. 

d. True. Electromagnetic radiation produces a sinusoidal graph when electric or magnetic field strength is plotted against time or distance, travelling with velocity (C). The peak field strength is called the amplitude (A). 

e. False. Frequency (f ) is the number of crests passing a point in a second. The interval between successive crests is called the period.

11360.

An iron-cored choking coil takes 5 A when connected to a 20-V d.c. supply and takes 5 A at 100 V a.c. and consumes 250 W. Determine (a) impedance (b) the power factor (c) the iron loss (d) inductance of the coil.

Answer»

(a) Z = 100/5 = 20 Ω 

(b) P = VI cos φ or 250 = 100 × 5 × cos φ 

∴ cos φ = 250/500 = 0.5 

(c) Total loss = loss in resistance + iron loss 

∴ 250 = 20 × 5 + Pi 

∴ Pi = 250 − 100 = 150 W

(d) Effective resistance of the choke is P/I2 = 250/25 = 10Ω

∴ XL = √(Z2 - R2) = √(400 - 100) = 17.32Ω

11361.

A resistance of 20 ohm, inductance of 0.2 H and capacitance of 150 μF are connected in series and are fed by a 230 V, 50 Hz supply. Find XL, XC, Z, Y, p.f., active power and reactive power.

Answer»

XL = 2 π fL = 2π × 50 × 0.2 = 62.8Ω ; XC = 1/2π fC 

= 10−6 2π × 50 × 150 = 21.2 Ω ; X = (XL − XC) = 41.6 Ω ;

Z = √(R2 + X2) = √(202 + 41.62)

= 46.2Ω; I = V/Z = 230/46.2 = 4.98A

Also, Z = R + jX = 20 + j 41.6 = 46.2 ∠ 64.3° ohm 

∴ Y = 1/Z = 1/46.2 ∠ 64.3° = 0.0216 ∠ − 64.3° siemens 

p.f. = cos 64.3° = 0.4336 (lag) 

Active power = VI cos φ = 230 × 4.98 × 0.4336 = 497 W 

Reactive power = VI sin φ = 230 × 4.98 × sin 64.3° = 1031 VAR

11362.

A resistance of 20 Ω, an inductance of 0.2 H and a capacitance of 100 μF are connected in series across 220-V, 50-Hz mains. Determine the following (a) impedance (b) current (c) voltage across R, L and C (d) power in watts and VA (e) p.f. and angle of lag

Answer»

XC = 0.2 × 314 = 63Ω , C = 10μF = 100 × 10−6 = 10−4 farad

XC = 1/ωC = 1/(314 x 10-4) = 32Ω, X = 63 − 32 = 31 Ω (inductive)

(a) Z = √(202 + 31)2 = 37 Ω 

(b) I = 220/37 = 6 A (approx)

(c) VR = I × R = 6 × 20 = 120 V; VL = 6 × 63 = 278 V, 

VC = 6 × 32 = 192 V 

(d) Power in VA = 6 × 220 = 1320 

Power in watts = 6 × 220 × 0.54 = 713 W 

(e) p.f. = cos φ = R/Z = 20/37 = 0.54; φ = cos−1(0.54) = 57°18′

11363.

A coil takes a current of 6 A when connected to a 24-V d.c. supply. To obtain the same current with a 50-Hz a.c. supply, the voltage required was 30 V. Calculate (i) the inductance of the coil (ii) the power factor of the coil.

Answer»

It should be kept in mind the coil offers only resistance to direct voltage whereas it offers impedance to an alternating voltage.

∴ R = 24/6 = 4 Ω; Z = 30/6 = 5Ω

(i) ∴  XL = √(Z2 - R2) = √(52 - 42) = 3Ω 

(ii) p.f. = cos φ = R/Z = 4/5 = 0.8 (lag)

11364.

A pure resistance of 50 ohms is in series with a pure capacitance of 100 micro farads. The series combination is connected across 100-V, 50-Hz supply. Find (a) the impedance (b) current (c) power factor (d) phase angle (e) voltage across resistor (f) voltage across capacitor. Draw the vector diagram.

Answer»

XC = 106 π /2π × 50 × 100 = 32 Ω ; R = 50 Ω

(a) Z = (502 + 322) + 59.4 Ω 

(b) I = V/Z = 100/59.4 = 1.684 A 

(c) p.f. = R/Z = 50 = 59.4 = 0.842 (lead) 

(d) φ = cos−1 (0.842)= 32°36′ 

(e) VR = IR = 50 × 1.684 = 84.2V 

(f) VC = IXC = 32 × 1.684 = 53.9V

11365.

A coil of 0.8 p.f. is connected in series with 110 micro-farad capacitor. Supply frequency is 50 Hz. The potential difference across the coil is found to be equal to that across the capacitor. Calculate the resistance and the inductance of the coil. Calculate the net power factor.

Answer»

XC = 1/(3.14 × C) = 28.952 ohms

∴ Coil Impedance, Z = 28.952Ω 

Coil resistance = 28.952 × 0.8 = 23.162 Ω 

Coil reactance = 17.37 ohms 

Coil-inductance = 17.37/314 = 55.32 milli-henrys 

Total impedance, ZT = 23.16 + j 17.37 − j 28.952 

= 23.162 − j 11.582 = 25.9 ohms 

Net power-factor = 23.162/25.9 = 0.8943 leading

11366.

An open organ pipe of length L vibrates in its fundamental mode. The pressure variation is maximumA. at the two endsB. at the middle of the pipeC. at distance L/4 inside the endsD. at distance L/8 inside the ends

Answer» Correct Answer - B
In an open pipe the ends are points of displacement antinodes and hence pressure node. The midpoint (for fundamental mode) is a point of displacement node and hence pressure antinode. ( variation of pressure is maximum at pressure antinode and zero at pressure -node).
11367.

A ring of radius 1m is in xy-plane with centre at the origin. In each of option below, the moment of inertia of the ring about the line is calculated. In which case does the ring have same of inertia as that about z-axis.A. `y=gamma`B. `x+y=(1)/sqrt(2)`C. `-x-y=(1)/sqrt(2)`D. `x=(1)/sqrt(2)`

Answer» If axis lies inplane of ring/lies at a distance d from its centre.
`I_(d)=(MR^(2))/(2)+Md^(2)=MR^(2)`
`rArr d=(R)/sqrt(2)=(1)/sqrt(2)m`
`therefore` distance of line from centre should be `(1)/sqrt(2)`
11368.

A uniform cylinder free to turn around a fixed axis has a string wrapped around it as shown. The string is pulled with a force F equal to the cylinders weight. What is the acceleration of the string? A. 2gB. gC. g/2D. g/4

Answer» `RxxF=(1)/(2)mR^(2)prop,F=mg, alpha=(2g)/(R)`
`a=Ralpha=2g`
11369.

What are the matter waves? Write the expression for De-Broglie wavelength of a particle and explain the terms.

Answer»

The waves associated with material particles in motion is called matter waves. The expression for de-Broglie wavelength is

\(\lambda = \frac{h}{mv}\)

Where

h → is Planck’s constant 

m → is mass of moving particle 

v → is the velocity of moving particle.

11370.

The most commonly occurring conjugation reaction for drugs and their metabolites is: A. Glucuronidation B. Acetylation C. MethylationD. Glutathione conjugation

Answer»

A. Glucuronidation

11371.

When the intensity of magnetic field is increased four times, the time period of suspended magnetic needle becomes:(a) double(b) half(c) four times(d) one - fourth less

Answer»

Correct answer is (c) four times

11372.

Write true/false in the following :(i)  The perpendicular drawn from the center of a circle to a chord bisect the chord.(ii)  All squares are similar.(iii)  Area of right triangle = 1/2 x  base x altitude.(iv)  A line intersecting a circle in two points is called a secant.(v)  The angle of elevation of an object viewed is the angle formed by the line of sight with the horizontal, when we lower our head to look at the object. 

Answer»

(i)  True

(ii)  True

(iii)  True

(iv)  True

(v)  False

11373.

The speed (v) and time (t) for an object moving along straight line are related as `t^(2)+100=2vt` where v is in meter/second and t is in second. Find the possible positive values of v.

Answer» For possible values of v, time t must be real so from `b^(2)-4acge0`
we have `(-2v)^(2)-4(1)(100)ge0`
`rArr4v^(2)-400ge0 rArr v^(2)-100ge0`
`rArr (v-10)(v+10)ge0 rArr vge10 "and" v le-10`
Hence possible positive values of v are `v ge10 m//s`.
11374.

\( \frac{8^{x}-2^{x}}{6^{x}-3^{x}}=2 \)

Answer»

\(\frac {8^x-2^x}{6^x-3^x} = \frac {2^x(2^{2x}-1)}{3^x (2^x-1)}\)

\(\frac {2^x (2^x-1)(2^x+1)}{3^x (2^x-1)}\) 

\(\frac {2^x (2^x+1)}{3^x}\)

\(\therefore\) \(\frac {2^x (2^x+1)}{3^x}\) = 2 (Given)

\(\Rightarrow\) \(2^{2x} +2^x = 2.3^x\)

For x = 0, \(2^{2x} + 2^x = 2^0 + 2^0 = 1+1 = 2\) 

\(2.3^x = 2.3^0 = 2 \times 1 = 2\)

Hence, \(2^{2x}+2^x = 2.3^x \) then x = 0

11375.

Find:\( 6^{x}+9^{x}=2^{2 x+1} \)

Answer»

6x + 9x = 22x + 1

⇒ 32x + 3x.2x = 22x + 1

⇒ 32x + 2.3x .\((\frac{2^x}2)+\frac{2^{2x}}4\) = 22x+1 + \(\frac{2^{2x}}4\)

⇒ (3x + \(\frac{2^x}2\))2 = 22x\((2+\frac14)\) (\(\because\) a2 + 2ab + b2 = (a + b)2)

⇒ (3x + 2x-1) = 3/2 . 2x = 3.2x-1

⇒ 3x = 3.2x-1- 2x-1 = 2.2x-1

⇒ 3x = 2x

which is possible only when x = 0

hence, if 6x + 9x = 22x+1 then x = 0

11376.

Kinetic energy K and linear momentum P are related as K = (P2 / 2m). What is the equation of the relative error Δk/k  in measurement of the K ? (mass in constant)(a) (P / ΔP) (b) 2(ΔP / P) (c) (P / 2ΔP) (d) 4(ΔP / P)

Answer»

(b) 2(ΔP / P)

Explanation:

k = (p2 / 2m)

(Δk / k) = 2(Δp / p)  

11377.

Dimensional formula for capacitance (C)(a) M–1L–2T4A2   (b) M1L–2T4A2   (c) M–1L–2T3A1   (d) M3L1T–1A–2

Answer»

(a) M–1L–2T4A 

Explanation:

 Q = CV

Q – charge,   C – capacitance, V – voltage

C = (Q/V)

Q = It where I is current and t is time

 V = (W/Q) where W is work done and Q is charge

 W = F × S where F is force and S is displacement

  ∴ V = (W/Q) = [(F × S) / Q] = [(m × a × s) / Q]

    ∴ Q = [A1T1]

   V = ([M1L1T–2L1] / [A1T1]) = [M1L2T–3A–1]

  ∴ C = (Q/V) = [A1T1] / [M1L2T–3A–1] = [M–1L–2T4A2

11378.

Following vanderwaal forces are present in ethyl acetate liquid a) H–bond, London forces b) dipole–dipole interation, H–bondc) dipole–dipole interation, London forces d) H–bond, dipole–dipole interation, London forces not

Answer»

The correct answer is (i:e) Dipole-Dipole interaction and London forces.

  • The predominant intermolecular forces present in ethyl acetate liquid are London dispersion and dipole-dipole interaction.
  •  Ethyl acetate is a polar molecule, therefore, dipole-dipole interaction will be present there.
     
11379.

Which gives blood red colour with ammonium thiocyanate

Answer»
  • Fe3+ gives blood red color with ammonium thiocyanate forming ferric thiocyanate.
  • Fe(SCN)3 is a red salt soluble in water.

Fe3+ + SCN → [Fe(SCN)]2+

11380.

A metal salt solution gives raddish brown precipitate with ammonium hydroxide hydroxide and deep red solouration with ammonium thiocyanate reagent. The metal ion is `:`A. `Ni^(2+)`B. `Cu^(2+)`C. `Fe^(3+)`D. `As^(3+)`

Answer» Correct Answer - 3
`Fe^(3+)+3OH^(-)rarrFe(Oh)_(3)darr("reddish brown ")`
`Fe^(3+)+3SCN^(-)rarrFe(SCN)_(3)("deep red colouration")`
11381.

`H_3PO_3+HNO_3+(NH_4)_2MoO_4to` Oxidation number of Mo in product is x. `Cr_2O_7^(2-)+H^(+)+NaCl to` Oxidation state of Cr in product is y. `SCN^(-)+MnO_2to`Number of `pi` bonds in sulphur containing product is z. Find x+y+z

Answer» Correct Answer - 16
x=+6`(NH_4)_3 PMo_12 O_40`
y=+6 `CrO_2Cl_2`
z=4
`ZtoN^(@)C-S-S-C^(@)N`
11382.

What do you _____ to do about the problem now that this solution has failed. A) attempt B) think C) pretend D) intend

Answer»

Correct option is D) intend

11383.

He couldn’t ________ his father that he was telling the truth. A) admit B) convince C) believe D) confide E) ensure

Answer»

Correct option is B) convince

11384.

He didn’t intend to ________ this conversation further himself, for he disliked his aunt’s patronizing tone. A) prosecute B) pursue C) push D) follow E) enter

Answer»

Correct option is B) pursue

11385.

He began ________ absurd plans for escaping. A) doing B) settling C) hitching D) devising E) thinking

Answer»

Correct option is D) devising

11386.

The metal mainly used in devising photoelectric cells is:(1) Na (2) Rb (3) Li (4) Cs

Answer»

Answer is (4) Cs

Cs used in photoelectric cell as it has least ionisation energy.

11387.

The H.C.F. of three numbers is 12. If those numbers are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3, then what are those numbers?1. 6, 12, 182. 12, 18, 243. 12, 24, 364. 8, 16, 24

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : 12, 24, 36

Concept used :

The given numbers are exactly divisible by their H.C.F.

Solution :

∵ 12 is H.C.F.

⇒ The number in the ratio will exactly be divisible by 12.

Let the numbers will be x : 2x : 3x

As, HCF is 12

⇒ x = 12

The numbers will be  12, 12 × 2 = 24 and 12 × 3 = 36

∴ The required number is 12, 24, 36.

11388.

Find the least multiple of 60 that is the perfect square ?1. 6002. 9003. 36004. 360

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : 900

Concept used :

Factorize the given number and make a pair of unpaired factors.

Solution :

Factorization of 60

⇒ 60 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5

Make a pair of unpaired factors

⇒ Required number = (2 × 2) × (3 × 3) × (5 × 5)

∴ The required number is 900.

11389.

the equation: x + √x + √(x+2) + √(x^2 + 2x) = 3 has: 1. No solutions2. At least two solutions3. only positive solutions4. Infinite number of solutions

Answer»

Given equation is,

\(x\,+\sqrt{x}\,+\sqrt{x+2}\,+\sqrt{x^2+2x}\) = 3

\(\Rightarrow\) \(x\,+\sqrt{x}\,+\sqrt{x+2}\,+\sqrt{x^2+2x}-3=0\)

Let f(x) = \(x\,+\sqrt{x}\,+\sqrt{x+2}\,+\sqrt{x^2\,+\,2x}-3\)

Therefore, the domain of function f(x) is [0,).

f(o) = - 3 < 0

f(1) = 1 + 1 + \(\sqrt{3}\,+\sqrt{3}\)

= 2 + \(2\sqrt{3}\) > 0

Hence, at least one solution lies between 0 and 1.

f1(x) = 1 + \(\frac{1}{2\sqrt{x}}\) + \(\frac{1}{2\sqrt{x\,+\,2}}\) + \(\frac{2(x\,+\,1)}{2\sqrt{x^2\,+\,2x}}\)> 0 (\(\because\) \(x\in\) [0,∞)]

Hence, f(x) is increasing in its domain 

therefore, only one positive solution of given equation exist which lies between 0 and 1.

Hence, option (C) is correct

11390.

Let R1 and R2 be two relations defined on \(R\) by αR1 b ⇔ ab ≥ 0 and α R2b ⇔ a ≥ b , then(A) R1 is an equivalence relation but not R2(B) R2 is an equivalence relation but not R1(C) both R1 and R2 are equivalence relations(D) neither R1 nor R2 is an equivalence relation

Answer»

Correct option is (D) neither R1 nor R2 is an equivalence relation

\(R_1 = \{xy\ge 0 , x, y\in R\}\)

For reflexive x \(\times\) x ≥ 0 which is true.

For symmetric 

If xy ≥ 0 ⇒ yx ≥ 0

If x = 2, y = 0 and z = -2

Then x.y ≥ 0 & y.z ≥ 0 but x.z ≥ 0 is not true 

⇒ not transitive relation. 

⇒ R1 is not equivalence 

R2 if a ≥ b it does not implies b ≥ a 

⇒ R2 is not equivalence relation 

⇒ D

11391.

Equation of a plane

Answer»

If we know the normal vector of a plane and a point passing through the plane, the equation of the plane is established. a ( x − x1) + b (y − y1) + c (z − z1) = 0.

11392.

How many terms of the G.P. 3,3/2,3/4 are needed to give the sum 765/128?

Answer»

3, \(\frac{3}{2}\)\(\frac{3}{4}\)

Here r = \(\frac{1}{2}\)< 1

sum of G.P = \(\frac{a(1-r^n)}{1-r}\)

⇒ \(\frac{255}{128} = \frac{3(1-(\frac{1}{2})^n)}{1- (\frac{1}{2})}\) = \(\frac{3(1- \frac{1}{2^n})}{\frac{1}{2}} = 6({1- \frac{1}{2^n}})\)

⇒ \(\frac{255}{256}\) = \(1- \frac{1}{2^n}\)

⇒ \(\frac{1}{2^n} = 1 - \frac{255}{256}\) = \(\frac{1}{256} = \frac{1}{2^8}\)

⇒ n = 8

11393.

In an A.P., if pth term is 1/q and qth term is 1/p , prove that the sum of first pq terms is (pq +1)/2, where p ≠ q.

Answer»

Solution:

Given pth term = 1/q
That is ap = a + (p - 1)d = 1/q
aq + (pq - q)d = 1  --- (1)
Similarly, we get ap + (pq - p)d = 1  --- (2)
From (1) and (2), we get
aq + (pq - q)d = ap + (pq - p)d 
aq - ap = d[pq - p - pq + q]
a(q - p) = d(q - p)
Therefore, a = d
Equation (1) becomes,
dq + pqd - dq = 1  
d = 1/pq
Hence a = 1/pq
Consider, Spq = (pq/2)[2a + (pq - 1)d]
                    = (pq/2)[2(1/pq) + (pq - 1)(1/pq)]
                    = (1/2)[2 + pq - 1]
                    = (1/2)[pq + 1]

Answer : Given :if pth term of an ap is 1/q and the qth term of an ap is 1/p

To prove : the sum of pq terms is pq+1/2  

Let first term and common difference be a and d respectively

Now according to the question

Tp=a+(p-1)d=1/q ..................eq (1)

Tq=a+(q-1)d=1/p ...................eq(2)

Subtracting eq 2 by eq1, we get

=> (p-q)d = (1/q )- (1/p )

 => (p-q)d = [ (p-q) / pq ]

 => d =1/pq......................eq 3

Substituting the value of d in eq 1

=> 1/q=a+[(p-1) (1/(pq)) ]

=> 1/q = a + [1/q] - [1/(pq)]

=> a=1/pq.................................eq 4

Now the sum of pq terms using the formula Sn = n/2 ( 2a +(n-1) d ) is given by

=> Spq=(pq/2 ) [ (2/(pq)) + (pq-1) (1/pq)]   {using the value of eq 3 and eq 4}

=> Spq= (pq/2 ) [ (2/(pq)) + 1 -(1/pq)]     

=> Spq= (pq/2 ) [ (1/(pq)) + 1]     

=> Spq = ( 1/2 ) + (pq /2)

=> Spq=(pq+1)/2

11394.

A force `vecF=(3veci+4hatj)N` acts on a 2 kg movable object that moves from an initial position `vecd_(1)=(-3hatij-2hatj)m` to a final position `vecd_(f)=(5hati+4hatj)` m is 6 s. The average power (in watt) delivered by the force during the interval is equal to:

Answer» Correct Answer - 8
(Easy) `vecd=vecd_(f)-vecd_(i)=8hati+6hatj`
`W=vecF.vecd=24+24=48J`
`P_(av)=(W)/(t)=8`watt
11395.

The potential energy function associated with the force `vecF=4xyhati+2x^2hatj` isA. `U-2x^(2)y`B. `U=-2x^(2)y+` constantC. `U=2x^(2)y+` constantD. not defined

Answer» Correct Answer - B
`F_(x)=-(delU)/(delx) or F_(y)=-(delU)/(dely),` only `(B)` option satisfies the criteria.`
11396.

Find the center of mass(x,y,z) of the following structure of four identical cubes if the length of each side of a cube is 1 unit. A. `(1//2,1//2,1//2)`B. `(1//3,1//3,1//3)`C. `(3//4,3//4,3//4)`D. `(1//2,3//4,1//2)`

Answer» Correct Answer - C
Ans. (3)
First we find the center of mass of each cube. It is located by symmetry`:` `(0,5,0,5,0,5)`,`(1,5,0,5,0,5)`,`(0,5,1,5,0,5,)`,`(0,5,0,5,1.5)`
Now we find the center of mass by treating the COM of each cube as a point particle`:`
`x_(COM)=(0.5+1.5+0.5+0.5)/(4)=0.75`
`y_(COM)=(0.5+0.5+1.5+0.5)/(4)=0.75`
`z_(COM)=(0.5+0.5+0.5+1.5)/(4)=0.75`
11397.

A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by `F=600-2xx10^(5)` t, where F is in newtons and t in seconds. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. What is the average impulse imparted to the bullet?A. 9N-sB. zeroC. 0.9N-sD. 1.8N-s

Answer» F`=600-2xx10^(5)t=0`
t`=(600)/(2xx10^(5))=3xx10^(-3)s`
Impulse `=int_(0)^(1)` Fdt
11398.

Five uniform circular plates, each of diameter `b` and mass `m` are laid out in a pattern shown. Using the origin shown, find the `y` co-ordinate of the centre of mass of the five-plate system. .A. `2D//5`B. `4D//5`C. `D//3`D. `D//5`

Answer» Correct Answer - B
Ans.(2)
`y_(cm)=(summ_(i)y_(i))/(summ_(i))=(mxx0+mxxD+mxx2D+mxxD+mxx0)/(m+m+m+m+m)=(4D)/(5)`
11399.

The centre of mass of a non uniform rod of length `L` whoose mass per unit length varies `asp=kx^(2)//L`, (where `k` is a constant and `x` is the distance measured form one end) is at the following distances from the same endA. `3L//4`B. `L//4`C. `2L//3`D. `L//3`

Answer» Correct Answer - A
Ans. (1)
11400.

A pulley is attached to one arm of a balance and a string passed around it carries two masses `m_(1)` and `m_(2)`. The pulley is provided with a clamp due to which `m_(1)` and `m_(2)` do not move. On removing the clamp, `m_(1)` and `m_(2)` start moving. How much change in counter mass has to be made to restore balance ? A. `g(m_(1)-m_(2))^(2)/((m_(1)+m_(2))` to be reducedB. `g(m_(1)-m_(2))^(2)/((m_(1)+m_(2))` to be increasedC. `g(m_(1)-m_(2))/((m_(1)+m_(2))`to be increasedD. `g(m_(1)-m_(2))/((m_(1)+m_(2))`to be increased

Answer» When `m_(1)` & `m_(2)` not moving
Then `W_(1)= (m_(1)+m_(2))g`
When `m_(1) & `m_(2)` are moving W_(2) `=(4m_(1)m_(2)g)/(m_(1)+m_(2))`
`:.` Reduced wt`=W_(1)-W_(2)`