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When ionic compounds are in a molten state or DISSOLVED in water, forming an AQUEOUS solution, the ions that FORMED the ionic compounds are able to move around FREELY, thus able to conduct ELECTRICITY.

For last 6 m distance TRAVELLED s = 6 m, U = ? t = 0.2 sec, a = g = 9.8 m/s2 S = ut + ½ at2 ⇒ 6 = u (0.2) + 4.9 x 0.04 ⇒ u = 5.8/0.2 = 29 m/s. For distance x, u = 0, v = 29 m/s, a = g = 9.8 m/s2 S = (V^2-u^2)/2A = (〖29〗^2 - 0^2 )/(2 x 9.8 ) = 42.05 m Total distance = 42.05 + 6 = 48.05 = 48
I hope you got it

The actual FREQUENCY at which an object VIBRATES at is determined by a variety of FACTORS. Each of these factors will AFFECT either the wavelength or the speed of the object. From
frequency = speed / wavelength

a change of velocity or wavelength will result in a change in the natural frequency. The role of a musician is to control these variables to produce a GIVEN frequency from the instrument that is played. Consider as an example a guitar. T

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V=u+at
FINAL SPEED= 60km/h = 60×5/18
INITIAL speed= 80km/h = 80×5/18

300/18= 400/18+ a × 5
300/18-400/18=5A
100/18= 5a
5.55=5a
a= 1.11 m/s^2

It MAY be -2°C .....

Tum iske liye TEACHERS se baat kro
har numerical ko samzkar solve kro
unke formulae yaad kro
kaunsa FORMULA KAHA KYU use karna hai jaan lo

Electron is accelerated more as it has same magnitude of CHARGE but small mass,so ACCORDING to Newton's second LAW LESS mass more ACCELERATION.

Kinematics is branch of PHYSICS .there is no formula for kinematics.
pls MARK BRAINLIEST

Both FISSION and fusion arenuclear REACTIONS that produce energy, but the applications are not the same. Fission is the splitting of a heavy, unstable nucleus into two lighter nuclei, and fusion is the PROCESS where two light nuclei combine TOGETHER RELEASING vast amountsof energy.

It's tied for the SAFETY BCZ when luggage is tied it's not felt down when bus is JUMPED..

(a) Here virtual a.c voltage is 220V at frequency of 50Hz . so, RMS value of current, Iv
Iv = Ev/R
here, Ev = 220V and R = 100 ohm
so, Iv = 220/100 = 2.2A

(b) power in complete cycle is GIVEN by

here, P denotes the power, denotes angle made by CYCLING of a.c circuit.
for full cycle ,
so, P = 220 × 2.2 × cos0° W
P = 484 W

(a) As the magnetic field will be variable with distance from long straight wire, so the FLUX through square loop can be calculated by integration.
Let us assume a width dr of square loop at a distance r from straight wire.


Total flux associated with square loop


(b) the square loop is MOVING right with a CONSTANT speed v,the instantaneous flux can be TAKEN as

An OBSERVER MOVING with UNIFORM SPEED only

Hi...

=> 2cm s-² = 0.02m s-²

Here it goes after start , so its initial velocity (U) = 0 m/s
and acceleration= 0.02m s-² ...time = 3 SEC

from first EQN of motion, v = u + at

=> v = 0 + 0.02 × 3

=> v = 0.06 m/s or 6cm s-²

_____________________


hope this HELPS!

Given,
Mutual conductance, μ = 1.5 H
Initial CURRENT i₁= 0
Final current i₂ = 20 A
Time taken t = 0.5 seconds
Change in the current can be CALCULATED as,DI = 20 – 0
dI = 20 A
The mutual conductance of the CIRCUIT is calculated using the formula,

As we know,


= 1.5 H × 20A
= 30Wb

Hence, the change in flux linkage is 30Wb

Given,
INITIAL current  = 5.0 A
Final current  = 0.0 A
Time,t = 0.1 seconds
Average e.m.f = 200 V
Change in the current can be calculated as ,di  = 5.0A – 0.0A
di = 5 A

The self-conductance of the CIRCUIT is calculated USING the formula,

Now, L = (200V ×0.1)/5 =4H

Given,
Radius of the circular COIL,r = 8.0 cm = 0.08 m
No. of turns in the coil, N =20
Angular frequency ω = 50 rad/s
Magnitude of magnetic field B =3.0 × 10^-2 T
Resistance of the closed loop = 10 Ω
The area of the coil can be calculated using the formula
A =πr² = 3.14 × (0.08 m)²

The maximum induced e.m.f is calculated as follows:e = NωAB
e = 20 × 50 rad/s × 3.14 × (0.08 m)² × 3.0 × 10^–2 T
e = 0.603 V
For a complete cycle, the average induced EMF will be zero.
The maximum current for the circular coil can be calculated as follows:
I = e/R
Substituting the values
I = 0.603 V/10 Ω
I = 0.0603A
The average power loss due to Joule’s HEATING effect in the circular coil will be given by:
P = (ei)/2
P = (0.603 V × 0.0603 A)/2
P = 0.018 W.

For amplitude modulation, the maximum and minimum values of modulation INDEX are 1 and 0. You can have it above 1, but you cannot recover the signal at the receiver and it is of no use. This phenomenon is called as over modulation. Modulation index is always positive so cannot be less than 0.

Sometimes, modulation index is expressed as a percentage of CARRIER amplitude, which is more intuitive to UNDERSTAND the max and min values.

Definition of modulation index varies for amplitude, frequency and phase modulation. I described about amplitude modulation, it may differ for other types of modulation

(a) A wire of irregular SHAPE turning into a circular shape.
now,when we change the shape of irregular loop of with into a circular loop, then the area of the loop will increase. Because, area of circle is considered to be greatest.Since, area of loop increases, 
∴ the magnetic FLUX will also increase.
Now, the CURRENT will be induced in the loop such that the magnetic flux decreases. And, magnetic field will decrease when the area will decrease i.e. the wires should be pulled in the inwards directions, to decrease the net magnetic field.
∴ the current will be along “adcba”.

(B) A circular loop being deformed into a narrow STRAIGHT wire.
Now, when circular loop is transformed into a narrow straight wire, then the area of the loop will decrease. Since, area of loop decreases.
∴ the magnetic flux will also decrease.
Now, the current will be induced in the loop such that the net magnetic flux increases in the wire. 
∴ the current flow will be along “adcba” which produces the induced magnetic field outwards the paper.

Fig. (a) :here you can see south pole is moving closer , so the current is clockwise in the end of solenoid closest to magnet.

fig.(b) : according to LENZ's law, the current flow anticlockwise in the loop at the left and clockwise in the loop at the RIGHT.

fig.(c) : induced current in the right loop will be xyz direction.

fig.(d) : current is DECREASING with increase in rheostat , so north pole is getting weaker, the current in inner part of loop-1 will flow clockwise.

fig.(e) : induced current in the right coil is from X to Y.

fig.(f) : No induced current since magnetic lines of force are in the plane of the loop.

Out of the two relations GIVEN,only one is in accordance with classical physics.
this is not other than

it follows from the definitions of and l.
---------(1)
[ we know, current = CHARGE/ time . so, i = (-e/T)]

--------(2)
where r is the radius of circular path and T is the time period of electron evolves arround the circular path.

dividing equation (1) by (2),


clearly and will be antiparallel (both being normal to the plane of the orbit).
in constrast , .it is obtained on the basis of QUANTUM mechanics.

Number of turns , N = 3500
radius of Rowland ring , r= 15cm = 0.15 m
RELATIVE permeability, =800
CURRENT, I = 1.2A

we know, MAGNETIC in the CORE is given by

because relative permeability = permeability of medium/permeability of vacuum

so,
= 4π × 10^-7 × 800 × 3500 × 1.2/(2π × 0.15)
= 4.48T

hence, magnetic FIELD ,B = 4.48T

Kinetic energy of electron is 18keV
e.g., K.E = 1/2mv² = 18keV = 18000 eV
=> 1/2 × (9.1 × 10^-31) ×v² = 18000 × 1.6 × 10^-19
=> 9.1 × 10^-31 × v²= 36000 × 1.6 × 10^-19
=> v² = 36000 × 1.6 × 10^-19/(9.1 × 10^-31)
=> V = 8 × 10^7 m/s

we know, velocity in x direction remains constant.
hence, time TAKEN to cross 30cm distance inx direction is t = x/v = 30 × 10^-2/(8 × 10^7)
= 3/8 × 10^-8 sec

A magnetic force F = Bve is acting in vertical direction, which provides acceleration in vertical direction,
so, a = Bve/m = (0.4 × 10^-4 × 8 × 10^7 × 1.6 × 10^-19)/(9.1 × 10^-31)
a = 5.63 × 10¹⁴ m/s²
now, vertical deflection,

= 0 + 1/2 × 5.63 × 10¹⁴ × (3/8 × 10^-8)²
≈ 4mm

hence, deflection in vertical direction is 4mm

Here,n = 30, r = 12cm = 12 × 10^-2 m
i = 0.35A , horizontal COMPONENT of earth's magnetic field, H = ?
As it is clear from figure shown the needke can point WEST to east only when
H = Bsin45°
where B = magnetic field strength due to current in coil =



(b) when current in coil is reversed and oil is turned through 90° anticlockwise, the direction of NEEDLE will reverse (e.g., it will point from east to west ).this follows from figure shown.

The neutral POINT can be ACHIEVED at a LOCATION above cable , where magnetic FIELD of cable is balanced by earth's magnetic field

Here, I = 2.5 A , =0.33G
so, 0.33 × 10^-4 T = (10^-7 × 2 × 2.5)/r
=> r = (10^-3 × 5)/0.33 = 15 × 10^-3 m
so, r = 15mm

a) in a specimen of ferromagnets, the atomic dipoles are grouped together in domains . all the dipoles of a domain are aligned in the same direction and have net magnetic moment. in an unmagnetised substance these domians are randomly distributed so that the resultant magnetisation is zero. when the substance is placed in an external magnetic field, thses domain align themselves in the direction of the field.some energy is spent in the process of alignment when the external field is removed, the substance retains some magnetisation. the energy spent in the process of magnetisation is not fully recovered.the balance of energy is lost as heat . this is the basic cause for irreversibility of the magnetisation curve of a FERROMAGNET substance.

(b) carbon steel piece, because the heat produced in complete cycle of magnetisation is directly proportional to the area under the HYSTERESIS loop.

(c) magnetisation of a ferromagnet is not a single valued function of the magnetic field.

its value for a particular field depends both on the magnetising field and on the history of its magnetisation.e.g., how many cycles of magnetisation it has done through etc.so, the value of magnetisation is a record or memory of it's cycles of magnetisation. if the information bits can be made to correspond to these cycles, the system displaying such a hysteresis loop can act as a device for storing information.

(d) ferrite or ceramics which is specially TREATED barium iron oxides.

(e) by surrounding the region with soft iron RINGS , as magnetic field lines will be drawn into the rings and the enclosed space becomes FREE of magnetic field.

When the bar MAGNET is turned through 180°, neutral points would lie on equatorial line, so that magnetic field at equatorial line = HORIZONTAL COMPONENT of earth's magnetic field
e.g., ----(1)

in PREVIOUS question, exercise 5.13
magnetic field at axial line =horizontal component of earth's magnetic field.
e.g.,----(2)

from equations (1), and (2),


given, =14cm
so,

A/C to question,
angle of dip is zero at the palace , so the EARTH's magnetic field is uniform with magnitude 0.36G in the direction geographical south to geographical north as shown in figure.

At axial POSITION for full point.

and at EQUATORIAL position the field due to bar magnet is as we know,
so,

now, TOTAL magnetic field of earth and magnet adds at equatorial position.

= 0.36G + 0.18G = 0.54G

North tip is pointing down at 22° with HORIZONTAL. HENCE, the location is in northern hemisphere.
so, angle of DIP, =22°
and horizontal components of EARTH's magnetic field, =0.35G

now,
B = 0.35/cos22° = 0.35/0.927 = 0.38G

hence, MAGNITUDE of the earth's magnetic field at the place is 0.38G

Number of TURNS, N = 16
radius of circular coil , R = 10cm= 0.1 m
current, I = 0.75A
magnetic field , B = 5 × 10^-2 T
frequency,f = 2Hz
so, the circular coil carries a dipole moment
M = NIA = 16 × 0.75 × π(0.1)² = 0.3768 Am²

time period of oscillation,
so, frequency ,
so, moment of inertia ,
I = (1 × 0.3768 × 5 × 10^-2 )/(4 × 3.14^2 × 2^2)
= 11.9 × 10^-5 kgm²

(a) work REQUIRED to turn the dipole is GIVEN by

here is the initial ANGLE made by dipole with magnetic field and is the FINAL angle made by dipole with magnetic field.

(i) magnetic moment is normal to the field direction.
so,
W = 1.5 × 0.22 [ cos0° - cos90° ]
W = 0.33J

(ii) magnetic moment is opposite to the field direction.
so,
now, W = 1.5 × 0.22 [ cos0° - cos180°]
= 0.33 [ 1 - (-1) ]
= 0.66 J

(b) torque when =90°

=1.5 × 0.22 × sin90°
= 0.33 Nm

torque when =180°

= 1.5 × 0.22 × SIN 180°
= 0.33 × 0 = 0 Nm

First LAW = a body in rest ALWAYS remains at rest and a body in motion continues as motion
second law= f=m×a
thirdlaw=every action is EQUAL to the OPPOSITE REACTION

Hello here is your answer by Sujeet yaduvanshi ☝☝

In simple answer:---+-Sonar is a device it is USED to measure the depth of the sea FULL FORM of SONAR is ( sound navigation and ranging).

that's all

Initial VELOCITY of the body(u) = 40 m/s.

Final Velocity(v) = 0

Acceleration due to GRAVITY = 10 m/s².

∴ Acceleration of the body = -10 m/s².

[∵ The body is thrown against the gravity].

Using the Galilio's Third equation of the motion,

v² - u² = 2aS

⇒ (0)² - (40)² = 2(-10)S

1600 = 20 S

∴ S = 80 m.

Hence, the maximum height reached by the body is 80 m.

Now, for the time, Using the Second equation of motion,

S = UT + 1/2 at²

⇒ 80 = 40t - 5t²

∴ 5t² - 40t + 80 = 0

∴ t² - 8t + 16 = 0

⇒ t² - 4T - 4t + 16 = 0

∴ t(t - 4) - 4(t - 4) = 0

⇒ (t - 4)(t - 4) = 0

∴ t = 4 seconds.

Now, If the body is projected upwards, it must be coming downwards.

∴ Total time = Time of ascent + time of descent.

= 4 + 4 [Time of ascent = time of descent].

= 8 seconds.

Time of ascent is 4 seconds.

Thus, body must be falling down at the 5 th second.

We need to find the Final velocity of the body during the fall at t = 5 seconds.

In 5th second, the velocity decreases by an amount 5 × 10 = 50 m/s.

Hence after 5 second it’s velocity is 40 - 50 = - 10 m/s

Negative sign shows opposite direction,i.e. downwards.

Hope it helps.

I think you mean circular motion.If an OBJECT travels in a circular PATH it is SAID to the in circular motion.if it is uniform then it is uniform circular motion

The power in an inductive circuit is known as Reactive Power or volt-amps reactive, symbol Var which is measured in volt-amps. ... In other WORDS, the net power in watts consumed by a pure inductor at the end of one complete CYCLE is ZERO, as energy is both taken from the SUPPLY and returned to it.

Let the velocity by which the Apple is MOVING me V ms.

Initial Velocity of the SPEED(u) = 0

Time taken by the Apple to fall = 1.5 s.

Using the GALILEO's First Equation of the motion,

v - u = at

∴ v - 0 = 10 × 1.5

⇒ v = 15 m/s.

Hence, the velocity of the Apple is 15 m/s.

Hope it helps.

One dozen = 12 apples.

Also given that 40 apples => 10 KG

To find how many kg a dozen of apples contain

40 apples : 10 kg :: 12 apples : x

40 * x = 10 * 12

40 x = 120

=> x = 120 / 40

=> x = 3

Hence mass of a dozen of apples is 3 kg.

Newton's First Law of Motion:

I. Every object in a state of uniform motion tends to REMAIN in that state of motion unless an external force is applied to it.

This we recognize as essentially Galileo's concept of inertia, and this is OFTEN termed simply the "Law of Inertia".

Newton's Second Law of Motion:

II. The relationship between an object's mass m, its acceleration a, and the applied force F is F = ma. Acceleration and force are vectors (as indicated by their symbols being displayed in slant bold font); in this law the direction of the force vector is the same as the direction of the acceleration vector.

This is the most POWERFUL of Newton's three Laws, because it allows quantitative calculations of DYNAMICS: how do velocities change when forces are applied. Notice the fundamental difference between Newton's 2nd Law and the dynamics of Aristotle: according to Newton, a force causes only a change in velocity (an acceleration); it does not maintain the velocity as Aristotle held.
please mark it as brainliest..

Rate of change of DISPLACEMENT in per UNIT TIME , it is a VECTOR quantity

In LAND warfare, artillery sound ranging is a METHOD of determining the coordinates of a HOSTILE battery USING data derived from the sound of its guns (or mortar or rockets) firing.

There are DIFFERENT units of energy like JOULE calories , Watt , Ampere ETC
1 SMALL calorie = 4.2 J APPROX