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8801.

Which one of these animals is not a homoetherm ?A. MacropusB. CheloneC. CamelusD. Psittacula

Answer» Correct Answer - B
8802.

Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement (s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature ? (1) They do not need to reproduce (2) They are somatic cells (3) They do not metabolise (4) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport.A. Only (1)B. (1),(3) and (4)C. (2) and (3)D. only (4)

Answer» Correct Answer - D
8803.

Large volume of air that a person can expire after a forceful inspiration is calledA. inspiratory reserve volumeB. expiratory reserve volumeC. vital capacityD. tidal volume

Answer» Correct Answer - C
8804.

Spermiation is the process of the release of sperms from- (a) Seminiferous tubules (b) Accessory ducts (c) Blood capillaries (d) (a) & (b) both 

Answer»

Spermiation is the process of the release of sperms from Seminiferous tubules. 

8805.

Given below are two statements:Statement I:The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.Statement II:Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Answer»

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

8806.

In pulmonary capillary blood A. Carbonic anhydrase in erythrocytes catalyses the formation of H+ and HCO3- . B. Hydrogen ions dissociate from hemoglobin. C. The rise in PO2 is of greater magnitude than the fall in PCO2. D. The oxygen content is linearly related to alveolar PO2. E. The pH is lower than in blood in the pulmonary artery.

Answer»

A. False It catalyses the conversion of H2CO3 to CO2 and H2O. 

B. True Oxygenation of haemoglobin favours this dissociation. 

C. True PO2 rises by at least 40 mm Hg whereas PCO2 falls by only 6 mmHg. 

D. False It follows the sigmoid oxygen dissociation curve. 

E. False It is higher due to the diffusion of CO2 out of the blood to the alveoli.

8807.

Why is the antibody-mediated immunity called humoral immunity?

Answer»

Antibodies are the glycoproteins that keep circulating in the body fluids (humors), hence it is called humoral immunity.

8808.

Give reasons for the following: (a) Antibody mediated immunity is called humoral immunity. (b) How is a child protected from a disease for which he/she is vaccinated? (c) Name the type of cells the AIDS virus enters after getting into the human body.

Answer»

(a). as antibodies are found in the blood the response is called humoral immunity

(b). host is exposed deliberately to antigen in attenuated or dead form or proteins and antibodies are produced in the host body providing active immunity 

(c). macrophages

8809.

The following is a proven human teratogen: A. Chloroquine B. Warfarin sodium C. Dicyclomine D. Methyldopa

Answer»

B. Warfarin sodium

8810.

Select the drug which has been found to be a strong human teratogen:A. Isoniazid B. Isotretinoin C. Hydralazine D. Propylthiouracil 

Answer»

B. Isotretinoin

8811.

Histamine is associated with- (a) Nutralization (b) B-lymphocyte (c) Antibody (d) Allergy

Answer»

Histamine is associated with Allergy.

8812.

Zinc is involved in storage and release of (A) Histamine (B) Acetylcholine (C) Epinephrine (D) Insulin

Answer»

Correct option (D) Insulin

8813.

Sub type-selective alfa1 receptor antagonists such as tamsulosin, terazosin, alfusosin are efficacious in: a) Hyperthyroidism b) Cardiac arrhythmias c) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) d) Asthma

Answer»

c) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) 

8814.

Which of the following beta receptor antagonists is preferable in patients with asthma, diabetes or peripheral vascular diseases? a) Propranolol b) Metoprololc) Nadolol d) Timolol

Answer»

b) Metoprolol 

8815.

Beta-receptor antagonists cause: a) Stimulation of lipolysis b) Stimulation of gluconeogenesis c) Inhibition of glycogenolysis d) Stimulation of insulin secretion

Answer»

c) Inhibition of glycogenolysis

8816.

Beta-blocking drugs-induced chronically lower blood pressure may be associated with theirs effects on: a) The heartb) The blood vessels c) The renin-angiotensin system d) All of the above

Answer»

d) All of the above

8817.

Indicate an alfa1 adrenoreceptor antagonist, which has great selectivity for alfa1a sub type: a) Prazosin b) Tamsulosin c) Phenoxybenzamine d) Phentolamine

Answer»

b) Tamsulosin

8818.

Characteristics of alfa-receptor antagonists include all of the following EXCEPT: a) They cause a fall in peripheral resistance and blood pressure b) They cause epinephrine reversal (convert a pressor response to a depressor response) c) Bronchospasm d) They may cause postural hypotension and reflex tachycardia 

Answer»

c) Bronchospasm

8819.

Which of the following alfa receptor antagonists is useful in reversing the intense local vasoconstriction caused by inadvertent infiltration of norepinephrine into subcutaneous tissue during intravenous administration? a) Propranolol b) Phentolamine c) Tamsulosin d) Ergotamine

Answer»

b) Phentolamine 

8820.

Indicate adrenoreceptor antagonist agents, which are used for the management of pheochromocytoma: a) Selective beta2-receptor antagonists b) Nonselective beta-receptor antagonists c) Indirect-acting adrenoreceptor antagonist drugs d) Αlfa-receptor antagonists 

Answer»

d) Αlfa-receptor antagonists 

8821.

Propranolol-induced adverse effects include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Bronchoconstriction b) “supersensitivity” of beta-adrenergic receptors (rapid withdrawal) c) Hyperglycemia d) Sedation, sleep disturbances, depression and sexual dysfunction

Answer»

c) Hyperglycemia

8822.

Which of the following drugs is an nonselective beta receptor antagonist? a) Metoprolol b) Atenolol c) Propranolol d) Acebutolol

Answer»

c) Propranolol

8823.

Nonselective alfa-receptor antagonists are most useful in the treatment of: a) Asthma b) Cardiac arrhythmias c) Pheochromocytoma d) Chronic hypertension

Answer»

c) Pheochromocytoma

8824.

Bronchial asthma can be controlled by A. Yogic management B. Dietary management C. Medical management D. All the above

Answer»

A. Yogic management

Bronchial asthma can be controlled by Yogic management.

8825.

The principal adverse effects of phentolamine include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Diarrhea b) Bradycardia c) Arrhythmias d) Myocardial ischemia

Answer»

b) Bradycardia 

8826.

Which of the following drugs is a nonselective alfa receptor antagonist? a) Prazosin b) Phentolamine c) Metoprolol d) Reserpine

Answer»

Phentolamine drugs is a nonselective alfa receptor antagonist.

8827.

Indicate the irreversible alfa receptor antagonist: a) Tolazoline b) Labetalol c) Prazosin d) Phenoxybenzamine 

Answer»

d) Phenoxybenzamine

8828.

Compared with phentolamine, prazosin has all of the following features EXCEPT: a) Irreversible blockade of alfa receptors b) Highly selective for alfa1 receptors c) The relative absence of tachycardia d) Persistent block of alfa1 receptors 

Answer»

a) Irreversible blockade of alfa receptors  

8829.

Which of the following drugs is a reversible nonselective alfa, beta antagonist? a) Labetalol b) Phentolamine c) Metoprolol d) Propranolol 

Answer»

Labetalol drugs is a reversible nonselective alfa, beta antagonist.

8830.

Indicate an alfa-receptor antagonist, which binds covalently to alfa receptors, causing irreversible blockade of long duration (14-48 hours or longer): a) Phentolamine b) Phenoxybenzamine c) Ergotamine d) Prazosin 

Answer»

b) Phenoxybenzamine

8831.

Indicate the reversible nonselective alfa-receptor antagonist, which is an ergot derivative: a) Ergotamine b) Prazosin c) Phenoxybenzamine d) Carvedilol 

Answer»

a)  Ergotamine

8832.

........ is a specific antagonist of Alfa 2 receptors.

Answer»

Answer: Yohimbine

8833.

Sodium cromoglycate has a role in the treatment of the following conditions except: A. Chronic bronchial asthma B. Chronic urticaria C. Chronic allergic rhinitisD. Chronic allergic conjunctivitis

Answer»

B. Chronic urticaria

8834.

Leukotriene antagonists are used in bronchial asthma: A. For terminating acute attacks B. As monotherapy in place of β2 agonists C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids D. As nebulized powder in refractory cases

Answer»

C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids

8835.

Choose the correct statement(s) about ipratropium bromide: A. It preferentially dilates peripheral bronchioles B. It produces additional bronchodilatation when added to nebulized salbutamol C. As metered dose inhaler it is used for terminating asthma attacks D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Answer»

B. It produces additional bronchodilatation when added to nebulized salbutamol

8836.

Inflorescence of Compositae/Asteraceae isA. CapitulumB. HypanthodiumC. UmbelD. Corymb

Answer» Correct Answer - A
Inflorescence of Compositae/Asteraceae is Capitulum.
8837.

Select the most appropriate drug for regular prophylactic therapy in a 10 year old child who suffers from exercise induced asthma: A. Oral salbutamol B. Oral theophylline C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate D. Inhaled salmeterol

Answer»

C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate

8838.

Inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate should be used only in: A. Acute attack of asthma B. Moderate to severe chronic asthma C. Status asthmaticus D. Asthma not responding to systemic corticosteroids

Answer»

B. Moderate to severe chronic asthma

8839.

In patients of bronchial asthma inhaled corticosteroids achieve the following except:A. Reduce the need for bronchodilator medication B. Control an attack of refractory asthma C. Reduce bronchial hyperreactivity D. Reverse diminished responsiveness to sympathomimetic bronchodilators

Answer»

B. Control an attack of refractory asthma

8840.

Intranasal spray of budesonide is indicated in: A. Common cold B. Acute sinusitis C. Perennial vasomotor rhinitis D. Epistaxis

Answer»

C. Perennial vasomotor rhinitis

8841.

Indicate the expectorant with the reflex mechanism: a) Sodium benzoate b) Derivatives of Ipecacucnha and Thermopsis c) Trypsin d) Ambroxol

Answer»

b) Derivatives of Ipecacucnha and Thermopsis 

8842.

Which of the following ingredients has neither specific antitussive nor expectorant nor bronchodilator action, but is commonly present in proprietary cough formulations: A. Ambroxol B. Chlorpheniramine C. Guaiphenesin D. Noscapine

Answer»

B. Chlorpheniramine

8843.

Select the correct option. (1) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum. (2) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage. (3) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum. (4) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of vertebral ribs.

Answer»

Correct option: (4) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of vertebral ribs.

Explanation: 

• Vertebrosternal ribs are true ribs, dorsally they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage. First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs. 

• 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but join the seventh ribs with the help of hyaline cartilage. These are vertebrochondral or false ribs. 

• Last 2 pairs (11 & 12) of ribs are not connected ventrally and are therefore, called floating ribs. 

• Only first seven pairs of ribs are ventrally connected to the sternum.

8844.

Give example of:1. Hypercalcemic hormone and hypoglycemic hormone 2. Hypercalcemic hormone 3. Gonadotropic hormone 4. Progestational hormone 5. Blood Pressure lowering hormone 6. Androgens and estrogens

Answer»

1. Hyperglycemic hormone Glucagon, Hypoglycemic Hormone Insulin 

2. Hype – calcemic hormone 

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) 

3. Gonadotrophic hormones. 

Luteinizing Hormone and Follicle Stimulating Hormone

4. Progestrone and estrogen 

5. Blood pressure lowering hormone. 

Atrial Natriuretic Factor.

 6. Androgen, Testosterone Estrogens. Estrone, Estradiole, Estriol

8845.

Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ?(1) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia (2) Uremia and Ketonuria (3) Uremia and Renal Calculi (4) Ketonuria and Glycosuria

Answer»

(4) Ketonuria and Glycosuria

8846.

Centralised control in MNCs implies control exercised by ………(a) Branches (b) Subsidiaries (c) Headquarters (d) Parliament

Answer»

(c) Headquarters

8847.

Find out what the various components of the medium used for propagation of explants in vitro are?

Answer»

The major components of medium used for propagation of explants in vitro are carbon sources such as sucrose, inorganic salts, vitamins, amino acids, water, agar-agar, and certain growth hormones such as auxins and gibberellins.

8848.

Classify plant tissue culture based on the explants used.

Answer»

1. Organ culture 

2. Meristem culture 

3. Protoplast culture 

4. Cell culture

8849.

Transgenic animals are the animals in which a foreign gene is expressed.Such animals can be used to study the fundamental biological process/phenomenon as well as for producing products useful for mankind. Give one example for each type.

Answer»

Study basic biological process- how gene are regulated, how they affect the normal functions of the body and its development. Transgenic cow, Rosie is the example for the second category.

8850.

Differentiate between pro-insulin and mature insulin.

Answer»

Pro- insulin contains an extra stretch called the C peptide which is not present in the mature insulin.