Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Which agency creates data software which can be purchased only by researchers and corporations?(A) NSSO(B) CMIE(C) NIA(D) Survey Organization of India

Answer»

Correct option is (B) CMIE

2.

Name the term which means enrolling to sites and listening to lectures on net by experts.(A) Tutorials(B) Active learning(C) Reading material(D) Data screening

Answer»

Correct option is (B) Active learning

3.

Which of the following CDs is used by educational institutions?(A) CD of census of India(B) CD of Annual survey of industries in India(C) CD of national income accounts of India(D) All of these

Answer»

Correct option is (D) All of these

4.

Which of the following is a statistical programme used for data processing?(A) SPSS(B) C++(C) Excel(D) Both (A) and (C)

Answer»

Correct option is (D) Both (A) and (C)

5.

State the characteristics of perfect competitive market.

Answer»

Perfect competitive market:

1. Perfect market or perfect competitive market is defined by several characteristics.

Some are:

  • Perfectly competitive market is such a market where firms accepts market price and sell their commodities
  • Commodities are homogeneous (i.e. the qualities and characteristics of goods or services available in market do not vary between different suppliers)
  • There are large number of buyers and sellers
  • Buyers and sellers have complete knowledge of market situation
  • Price is determined by demand and supply of a commodity. Firms sells commodity on this price only and no firm can influence this price. Hence, price is fixed and constant.

2. In perfect competition, market price (P) = Average Revenue (AR) = Marginal Revenue (MR) i.e. (P – AR = MR).
3. Under such market condition, if price of commodity is ₹ 50 then Average
Revenue and Marginal Revenue of firm will also be ₹ 50.
4. As a result, the curves of Average Revenue and Marginal Revenue of the firm are same and also parallel to X-axis. This curve is represented as DD in the diagram.

6.

In perfect competition, average revenue curve and marginal revenue curve are same and parallel to the X-axis. Explain.

Answer»
  • In perfectly competitive market, Marginal Revenue (MR) and Average Revenue (AR) are constant and equal. As a result, both of them can be shown through one line or say curve DD.
  • Moreover, in perfect competition, market price (P) = Average Revenue (AR) = Marginal Revenue (MR) i.e. (P = AR = MR). Hence, irrespective of any price MR and AR will remain parallel to the X-axis.
  • All points on DD curve will show Average Revenue = Marginal Revenue.
  • Also, the Average Revenue and Marginal Revenue curve merge into one another and since value of both the revenues are same and constant the slope of curve is zero.
  • Hence, in perfect competition, average revenue curve and marginal revenue curve are same and parallel to the X-axis.
7.

Which of the following is a digital tool?(A) SAS(B) R(C) Data CDs(D) All of these

Answer»

Correct option is (D) All of these

8.

Which of the following software is pretty expensive?(A) Gretel(B) PSPP(C) SAS(D) R

Answer»

Correct option is (C) SAS

9.

Find the inverse on the matrixA = [2 3 4], [5 6 -10], [8 9 4]

Answer»

 \(A=\begin{bmatrix}2&3&4\\5&6&-10\\8&9&4\end{bmatrix}\)

∵ A = IA

⇒ \(\begin{bmatrix}2&3&4\\5&6&-10\\8&9&4\end{bmatrix}\) \(=\begin{bmatrix}1&0&0\\0&1&0\\0&0&1\end{bmatrix}A\)

R2 → 2R2 - 5R1

Applying R3 → R3 - 4R1

\(\begin{bmatrix}2&3&4\\0&-3&-40\\0&-3&-12\end{bmatrix}\)\(=\begin{bmatrix}1&0&0\\-5&2&0\\-4&0&1\end{bmatrix}A\)

Applying R3 → R3 - R2

\(\begin{bmatrix}2&3&4\\0&-3&-40\\0&0&28\end{bmatrix}\) \(=\begin{bmatrix}1&0&0\\-5&2&0\\1&-2&1\end{bmatrix}A\)

Applying R3 → R3/28

\(\begin{bmatrix}2&3&4\\0&-3&-40\\0&0&1\end{bmatrix}\) \(=\begin{bmatrix}1&0&0\\-5&2&0\\\frac{1}{28}&\frac{-1}{14}&\frac{1}{28}\end{bmatrix}A\)

Applying R1 → R1 - 4R3

R2 → R2 + 40R3

\(\begin{bmatrix}2&3&0\\0&-3&0\\0&0&1\end{bmatrix}\) \(=\begin{bmatrix}\frac{6}{7}&\frac{2}{7}&\frac{-1}{7}\\\frac{-25}{7}&\frac{-6}{7}&\frac{10}{7}\\\frac{1}{28}&\frac{-1}{14}&\frac{1}{28}\end{bmatrix}A\)

Applying R1 → R1 + R2

\(\begin{bmatrix}2&0&0\\0&-3&0\\0&0&1\end{bmatrix}\) \(=\begin{bmatrix}\frac{-19}{7}&\frac{-4}{7}&\frac{9}{7}\\\frac{-25}{7}&\frac{-6}{7}&\frac{10}{7}\\\frac{1}{28}&\frac{-1}{14}&\frac{1}{28}\end{bmatrix}A\)

Applying R1 → R1/2, R2 → R2/-3

\(\begin{bmatrix}1&0&0\\0&1&0\\0&0&1\end{bmatrix}\) \(=\begin{bmatrix}\frac{-19}{14}&\frac{-2}{7}&\frac{9}{14}\\\frac{25}{21}&\frac{2}{7}&\frac{-10}{21}\\\frac{1}{28}&\frac{-1}{14}&\frac{1}{28}\end{bmatrix}A\)

We obtain A-1A = I

Therefore, A-1 \(=\begin{bmatrix}\frac{-19}{14}&\frac{-2}{7}&\frac{9}{14}\\\frac{25}{21}&\frac{2}{7}&\frac{-10}{21}\\\frac{1}{28}&\frac{-1}{14}&\frac{1}{28}\end{bmatrix}\)

10.

If a line makes angles 90°, 135°, 45° with the x, y and z-axes respectively, find its direction cosines.

Answer»

Dc’s are cos α, cos β and cos γ 

cos 90°, cos 135°, cos 45°

\(\Big(0, \frac{-1}{\sqrt 2}, \frac{1}{\sqrt 2}\Big)\)

11.

A right circular cone and hemisphere have same base and volumes. Find the ratio of the height of the cone and the hemisphere.

Answer»

Let height of cone be h.

And radius of hemisphere (r) = height of the hemisphere (H)

Volume of cone = Volume of hemisphere

\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)πr2h = \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\)πr2 × H

⇒ h = 2H

⇒ \(\frac { h }{ H }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 1 }\)

⇒ h : H = 2 : 1

12.

The height of a right cone is 8 cm and its radius of the base is 6 cm. Find the volume of the cone.

Answer»

Given,

Height of cone (h) = 8 cm

base radius (r) = 6 cm

Volume of the cone (V) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)πr2h

\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) × \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) × 6 × 6 × 8

\(\frac { 2112 }{ 7 }\)

= 301.7 cm3

Hence, volume of the cone = 301.7 cm3

13.

The lateral surface area and the slant height of a cone are 1884.4 m2 and 12 m respectively. Find its base radius.

Answer»

Given,

Slant height of cone (l) = 12 meter

Lateral surface area = 1884.4 m2

Let the radius of base be r.

∴ πrl = 1884.4

\(\frac { 2112 }{ 7 }\) × 12 × r = 1884.4

r = \(\frac { 1884.4\times 7 }{ 22\times 12 }\)

= 50 m(approx)

14.

The given figure is a semi circle with 12 cm. diameter. Find out its circumference.

Answer»

Diameter (d)

Radius r = 12/2 = 6 cm

Perimeter of half circle = πr + diameter

= 3.14 x 6 + 12 (∵ π = 3.14)

= 30.84 cm.

15.

Circumference of a circle is 44 cm. Find the radius and area of triangle. (π = 22/7).

Answer»

Let radius of cirlce r cm

Circumference of circle = 44

⇒ 2πr = 44

⇒ 2 x 22/7 x r = 44

r = (44 x 7)/(22 x 7) = 7 cm

∴ Area of circle = πr2

= 22/7 x 7 x 7 

= 22 x 7

= 154 sq. cm

16.

Find out the circumference of circle whose radius is 21 cm. (π = 22/7).

Answer»

Radius of circle (r) = 21 cm

Circumference of circle = 2πr

= 2 x 22/7 x 21

= 2 x 22 x 3 

= 2 x 66 

= 132 cm

17.

In the adjoining figure, the diagonals AC and BD of a quadrilateral ABCD intersect at O. If BO = OD, prove that ar (△ ABC) = ar (△ ADC).

Answer»

It is given that BO = OD

From the figure we know that AO is the median of △ ABD

So we get

Area of △ AOD = Area of △ AOB ……. (1)

We know that OC is the median of △ CBD

So we get

Area of △ DOC = Area of △ BOC ……. (2)

By adding both the equations

Area of △ AOD + Area of △ DOC = Area of △ AOB + Area of △ BOC

So we get

Area of △ ADC = Area of △ ABC

Therefore, it is proved that ar (△ ABC) = ar (△ ADC).

18.

How many rounds does a wheel of radius 35 take in order to cover a distance of 880 metre? (π = 22/7).

Answer»

Radius of wheel (r) = 35 m

Circumference of wheel = 2πr

= 2 x 22/7 x 35 

= 2 x 22 x 5 

= 44 x 5

= 220 m

Wheel covers 220 metre distance revolution.

So to cover a distance of 880 metre number of revolution = 880/220 = 4 revolution.

19.

Area of the given figure is …………………. cm2A) 15 B) 30 C) 18 D) 24

Answer»

Correct option is A) 15

20.

How far does the tip of the minute hand move in 1 hour if its length is 14m is ………….. cms? A) 88 cm B) 80 cm C) 98 cm D) 78 cm

Answer»

Correct option is A) 88 cm

Length of minute hand is r = 14 m

Angle made by minute hand in 1 hour is θ = 360° = 2 π
\(\therefore\) Distance covered by minute hand in 1 hour

 = rθ = 14 x 2π = 14 x 2 x 22/7 = 88 cm

21.

In figure, ABC and ABD are two triangles on the base AB. If line segment CD is bisected by AB at O, show that ar(ΔABC) = ar(ΔABD).

Answer»

Draw two perpendiculars CP and DQ on AB. 

Now, 

ar(ΔABC) = 1/2 x AB x CP ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅(1) 

ar(ΔABD) = 1/2 x AB x DQ ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅(2) 

To prove the result, ar(ΔABC) = ar(ΔABD), we have to show that CP = DQ. 

In right angled triangles, ΔCPO and ΔDQO 

∠CPO = ∠DQO = 90° 

CO = OD (Given) 

∠COP = ∠DOQ (Vertically opposite angles) 

By AAS condition: 

ΔCP0 ≅ ΔDQO 

So, CP = DQ …………..(3) (By CPCT)

From equations (1), (2) and (3), we have 

ar(ΔABC) = ar(ΔABD)

Hence proved.

22.

In the adjoining figure, the point D divides the side BC of △ ABC in the ratio m: n. Prove that ar (△ ABD): ar (△ ADC) = m: n.

Answer»

We know that

Area of △ ABD = ½ × BD × AL

Area of △ ADC = ½ × DC × AL

It is given that BD: DC = m: n

It can be written as

BD = DC × m/n

We know that

Area of △ ABD = ½ × BD × AL

By substituting BD

Area of △ ABD = ½ × (DC × m/n) × AL

So we get

Area of △ ABD = m/n × (1/2 × DC × AL)

It can be written as

Area of △ ABD = m/n × (Area of △ ADC))

We know that

Area of △ ABD/ Area of △ ADC = m/n

We can write it as

Area of △ ABD: Area of △ ADC = m: n

Therefore, it is proved that ar (△ ABD): ar (△ ADC) = m: n.

23.

How many times will a wheel of radius 7 mts be rotated to travel 880 mts? A) 30 B) 20 C) 25 D) 24

Answer»

Correct option is B) 20

Radius of wheel is r = 7m

\(\therefore\) circumference of wheel is P = 2 π r  = 2 π x 7 = 14π m

\(\because\) Distance travel by wheel in one rotation  = 14 π m

\(\therefore\) Number of rotation required to travel distance of 14π m = 1

\(\therefore\) Number of rotation required to travel distance of 880 m

 = 1/14π x 880 = \(\frac{7}{14\times22}\times880=\frac{7\times40}{14}=\frac{40}2=20\)

24.

In Fig. ABC and ABD are two triangles on the base AB. If line segment CD is bisected by AB at O, Show that ar(Δ ABC) = ar(Δ ABD).

Answer»

Given that, 

CD bisected AB at O

To prove : 

Area (ΔABC) = Area (ΔABD)

Construction : 

CP perpendicular to AB and DQ perpendicular to AB

Proof : 

Area (ΔABC) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(AB x CP) ...(i)

Area (ΔABD) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(AB x DQ) ...(ii)

In ΔCPO and ΔDQO, 

We have,

∠CPO = ∠DQO 

(Each 90°) 

Given that, 

CO = DO 

∠COP = ∠DOQ

(Vertically opposite angle) 

Then, 

by AAS congruence rule,

ΔCPO ≅ ΔDQO

Therefore, 

CP = DQ 

(By c.p.c.t) 

Thus,

Area (ΔABC) = Area (ΔABD)

Hence, proved

25.

If ABCD is a parallelogram, then prove that ar(Δ ABD) = ar(Δ BCD) = ar(Δ ABC) = ar(Δ ACD) = 1/2 ar(||gm ABCD)

Answer»

ABCD is a parallelogram. 

When we join the diagonal of parallelogram, it divides it into two quadrilaterals. 

Step 1: Let AC is the diagonal, then, Area (ΔABC) = Area (ΔACD) = 1/2(Area of ||gm ABCD) 

Step 2: Let BD be another diagonal 

Area (ΔABD) = Area (ΔBCD) = 1/2( Area of llgm ABCD) 

Now, 

From Step 1 and step 2, we have 

Area (ΔABC) = Area (ΔACD) = Area (ΔABD) = Area (ΔBCD) = 1/2(Area of llgm ABCD) 

Hence Proved.

26.

ABCD is a parallelogram and E and F are the centroids of triangles ABD and BCD respectively, then EF = A. AE B. BE C. CE D. DE

Answer»

Option : (A)

Given : 

ABCD is a parallelogram 

E and F are the centroids of triangle ABD and BCD 

Since, 

The diagonals of parallelogram bisect each other 

AO is the median of triangle ABD 

And, 

CO is the median of triangle CBD 

EO = \(\frac{1}{3}\)AO 

(Since, centroid divides the median in the ratio 2:1)

Similarly, 

FO = \(\frac{1}{3}\)CO 

EO + FO = \(\frac{1}{3}\)AO +\(\frac{1}{3}\)CO 

= \(\frac{1}{3}\)(AO + CO) 

EF = \(\frac{1}{3}\)AC 

AE = \(\frac{1}{3}\)AO 

= \(\frac{2}{3}\) x \(\frac{1}{2}\) AC 

= \(\frac{1}{3}\)AC 

Therefore, 

EF = AE

27.

If ABCD is a parallelogram, then prove that ar(Δ ABD) = ar(Δ BCD) = ar(Δ ABC) = ar(Δ ACD) = ar(||gm ABCD)

Answer»

We know that, 

Diagonal of parallelogram divides it into two quadrilaterals. 

Since, 

AC is the diagonal 

Then, 

Area (ΔABC) = Area (ΔACD) 

= \(\frac{1}{2}\) Area of parallelogram ABCD ...(i) 

Since, 

BD is the diagonal 

Then, 

Area (ΔABD) = Area (ΔBCD) 

= \(\frac{1}{2}\)Area of parallelogram ABCD ...(ii) 

Compare (i) and (ii), we get 

Therefore, 

Area (ΔABC) = Area (ΔACD) 

= Area (ΔABD) = Area (ΔBCD) 

= \(\frac{1}{2}\)Area of parallelogram ABCD

28.

If the sum of 2n terms of the A.P. 2, 5, 8, 11,... is equal to the sum of n terms of A.P. 57, 59, 61, 63, ..., then n is equal to(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13

Answer»

Answer : (b) 11

For the 1st A.P., 2, 5, 8, 11, ...... , 

First term (a1) = 2, common difference (d1) = 3 

∴ The sum of this A.P. to 2n terms

\( \frac{2n}{2}[2a_1+(2n-1)d_1]\)

= n[4+(2n - 1)3]

= 4n + 6n2 – 3n = 6n2 + n = n (6n + 1)

For the second A.P., 57, 59, 61, 63, ....... , 

First term (b1) = 57, common difference (d2) = 2 

∴ The sum of this A.P. to n term is

\( Sum_n = \frac{n}{2}(2b_1+(n-1)d_2]\)

\(\frac{n}{2}\)[114 + (n - 1) 2]

= 57n + n2 – n = n2 + 56n = n (n + 56)

Given, S2n = Sumn

⇒ n(6n + 1) = n(n + 56) 

⇒ 6n + 1 = n + 56 

⇒ 5n = 55 

n = 11.

29.

Prove by the method of induction, for all n ∈ N.3n – 2n – 1 is divisible by 4.

Answer»

(3n – 2n – 1) is divisible by 4 if and only if (3n – 2n – 1) is a multiple of 4.

Let P(n) ≡ (3n – 2n – 1) = 4m, where m ∈ N.

Step I: Put n = 1

∴ (3n – 2n – 1) = 3(1) – 2(1) – 1 = 0 = 4(0)

∴ (3n – 2n – 1) is a multiple of 4.

∴ P(n) is term for n = 1.

Step II:

Let us assume that P(n) is true for n = k.

∴ 3k  – 2k – 1 = 4a, where a ∈ N

∴ 3k = 4a + 2k + 1 ….(i)

Step III:

We have to prove that P(n) is term for n = k + 1,

i.e., to prove that

3(k+1) – 2(k + 1) – 1 = 4b, where b ∈ N

P(k + 1) = 3k+1 – 2(k + 1) – 1

= 3k . 3 – 2k – 2 – 1

= (4a + 2k + 1) . 3 – 2k – 3 …….[From (i)]

= 12a + 6k + 3 – 2k – 3

= 12a + 4k = 4(3a + k)

= 4b, where b = (3a + k) ∈ N

∴ P(n) is term for n = k + 1.

Step IV:

From all the steps above, by the principle of mathematical induction, P(n) is term for all n ∈ N.

∴ 3n – 2n – 1 is divisible by 4, for all n ∈ N.

30.

Prove by the method of induction, for all n ∈ N.(23n – 1) is divisible by 7

Answer»

(23n – 1) is divisible by 7 if and only if (23n – 1) is a multiple of 7.

Let P(n) ≡ (23n – 1) = 7m, where m ∈ N.

Step I:

Put n = 1

∴ 23n – 1 = 23(1) – 1 = 2  – 1 = 8 – 1 = 7

∴ (23n – 1) is a multiple of 7.

∴ P(n) is true for n = 1.

Step II: Let us assume that P(n) is true for n = k.

i.e., 23k  – 1 is a multiple of 7.

∴ 23k – 1 = 7a, where a ∈ N

∴ 23k = 7a + 1 ……(i)

Step III: We have to prove that P(n) is true for n = k + 1,

i.e., to prove that

23(k+1)  – 1 = 7b, where b ∈ N.

∴ P(k + 1) = 23(k+1)  – 1

= 23k+3 – 1

= 23k . (23) – 1

= (7a + 1)8 – 1 …..[From (i)]

= 56a + 8 – 1

= 56a + 7

= 7(8a + 1)

7b, where b = (8a + 1) ∈ N

∴ P(n) is true for n = k + 1.

Step IV: From all the steps above, by the principle of mathematical induction, P(n) is true for all n ∈ N.

∴ (24n – 1) is divisible by 7, for all n ∈ N.

31.

Prove by the method of induction, for all n ∈ N.(cos θ + i sin θ)n = cos (nθ) + i sin (nθ)

Answer»

Let P(n) ≡ (cos θ + i sin θ)n = cos nθ + i sin nθ,

for all n ∈ N.

Step I: Put n = 1

L.H.S. = (cos θ + i sin θ)1 = cos θ + i sin θ

R.H.S. = cos[(1)θ] + i sin[(1)θ] = cos θ + i sin θ

∴ L.H.S. = R.H.S.

∴ P(n) is true for n = 1.

Step II: Let us assume that P(n) is true for n = k

 ∴ (cos θ + i sin θ)k = cos kθ + i sin kθ …….(i)

Step III: We have to prove that P(n) is true for n = k + 1,

i.e., to prove that (cos θ + i sin θ)k+1 = cos (k + 1)θ + i sin (k + 1)θ

L.H.S. = (cos θ + i sin θ)k+1

= (cos θ + i sin θ)k . (cos θ + i sin θ)

= (cos kθ + i sin kθ) . (cos θ + i sin θ) …… [From (i)]

= cos kθ cos θ + i sin θ cos kθ + i sin kθ cosθ – sin kθ sin θ ……[∵ i2 = -1]

= (cos kθ cos θ – sin k θ sin θ) + i(sin kθ cos θ + cos kθ sin θ)

= cos(kθ + θ) + i sin(kθ + θ)

= cos(k + 1) θ + i sin (k + 1) θ

= R.H.S.

∴ P(n) is true for n = k + 1.

Step IV:

From all the steps above, by the principle of mathematical induction, P(n) is true for all n ∈ N.

∴ (cos θ + i sin θ)n = cos (nθ) + i sin (nθ), for all n ∈ N.

32.

Write an account on the major iron and steel industries of India.

Answer»

Iron and Steel industry is the basic industry. The raw materials are obtained both from Metallic and Non Metallic minerals.

Iron and Steel industries are located in close proximity to the coal fields or Iron ore mines.

Name of IndustryPlaceEstablish- ment yearProduct
Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO)Jamshedpur, Jharkhand1911Pig Iron
Indian Iron and Steel Company (IISCO)Burnpur, Hirapur, Kulti, West Bengal1972Pig Iron and Crude Steel 
Visweshwaraya Iron Steel Ltd (VISL)Bhadravati, Karnataka1923Alloy and Sponge Steel 
Hisdustan  steel Ltd (HSL)
Collaborated With Russia
Bhilai, Chattigarh1957Railway Equipments and Ship Building
Hisdustan  steel Ltd (HSL)
Collaborated With Germany
Rourkela, Odisha1965Hot and cold rolled sheets, Galvanized sheets and electrical plants.
Hisdustan  steel Ltd (HSL)
Collaborated With United Kingdom
Durgapur, West Bangal1959Alloy Steel, Construction materials and railway equipment
Hisdustan  steel Ltd (HSL)
Collaborated With Russia
Bokaro, Jharkhand1972Sludge and Slog
Salem Steel LtdSalem, Tamil Nadu1982Stainless Steel 
Vijayanagar Steel Plant Tornagal, Karnataka1994Flat Steel and Long Steel 
Visakhapatnam Steel Plant (VSP)Visakhapatnam, Andhra pradesh1981Hot Metal

33.

Explain the factors responsible for the concentration of jute industries in the Hoogly region.

Answer»

The following factors are responsible for the concentration of Jute industries in the Hoogly region in West Bengal.

1. Raw materials: West Bengal is the largest producer of Jute. Availability of raw Jute for production. 

2. Processing: Jute require fresh water for processing. Abundant water supply is available by the riverines and continuous supply of fresh water is ensured due to Perennial nature. 

3. Transport: Well connected by the network of water ways, road ways and railways. 

4. Cheap labour: West Bengal is one of the densely populated area . So cheap labour is available.

5. Market: Kolkatta being one of the textile centre great demand for the product as well as port facilities available for export.

34.

Write about the distribution of cotton textile industries in India.

Answer»

The cotton textile industries contribute about 7% of industrial output, 2% of India’s GDP and 15% of the country’s export earnings. It is one of the largest sources of employment generation in the country. At present there are 1,719 textile mills in the country. Out of which 188 mills are in public sector, 147 in cooperative sector and 1,284 in private sector. Currently, India is the third largest producer of cotton and has the largest loom arc and ring spindles in the world. At present, cotton textile industry is the largest organized modem industry of India. About 16% of the industrial capital, 14% of industrial production and over 20% of the industrial labour of the country are engaged in this industry.

The higher concentration of textile mills in and around Mumbai, makes it as “Manchester of India”. Presence of black cotton soil in Maharashtra, humid climate, presence of Mumbai port, availability of hydro power, good market and well developed transport facility favour the cotton textile industries in Mumbai. The major cotton textile industries are concentrated in the states of Maharashtra, Gujarat, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Tamil nadu. Coimbatore is the most important centre in Tamil nadu with 200 mills out of its 435 and called as “Manchester ‘ of South India”. Erode, Tirupur, Karur, Chennai, Thirunelveli, Madurai, Thoothukudi, Salem and Virudhunagar are the other major cotton textiles centres in the state.

35.

The …. is the largest oil field in India producing 65% of oil. (a) Ankaleshwar (b) Mumbai high (c) Kalol (d) Surma valley

Answer»

(b) Mumbai high

36.

Manchester of India is …….. (a) Delhi (b) Mumbai (c) Chennai

Answer»

Manchester of India is Mumbai.

37.

National News Print and Papermills (NEPA) is in …… state. (a) Odisha (b) West Bengal(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer»

(d) Madhya Pradesh

38.

The …… is called as mineral oil. (a) Petroleum (b) Coal (c) Natural gas (d) Mica

Answer»

(a) Petroleum

39.

The resources that can be reproduced again and again is called …… (a) Mineral resources (b) Renewable resource (c) Natural resource

Answer»

(b) Renewable resource

40.

Tamil Nadu produces about…. % of the total thermal electricity produced in India. (a) 5 (b) 20 (c) 18 (d) 90

Answer»

Correct Answer is; (a) 5

41.

Define the resource and state its types.

Answer»

Any matter or energy derived from the environment that is used by living things including humans is called a natural resource.

Types of Natural Resources are: 

1. Renewable and 

2. Non – renewable resources.

42.

Lignite is extracted in Tamil Nadu ……. (a) Kadaloor (b) Neyveli (c) Madurai

Answer»

Lignite is extracted in Tamil Nadu Neyveli.

43.

Bysinosis is an occupational lung disease caused by exposure to:(a) natural gas (b) cotton dust (c) coal power (d) automobile

Answer»

(b) cotton dust

44.

Match the Column I with Column II.Column IColumn IIACoal (i)Deep minesBHamatite(ii)Laterite soilCShaft mines(iii)Iron oreDCopper(iv)Fossil fuelEBauxite(v)Wires and cables

Answer»

A. (iv) 

B. (iii) 

C. (i) 

D. (v) 

E. (ii)

45.

……. is an aluminium ore. (a) Manganese (b) Magnesium (c) Bauxite(d) Anthracite

Answer»

Bauxite is an aluminium ore.

Answer:C

Bauxite formula is:Al2O3.2H2O

BAUXITE will be answer
46.

Areas near …. district has the largest concentrations of wind farm capacity at a single location in the world. (a) Ramanathapuram (b) Tuticorin (c) Thiruvallur (d) Kanyakumari

Answer»

(d) Kanyakumari

47.

The leading producer of electronic goods is …….. (a) Bangalore (b) Coimbatore (c) Hyderabad

Answer»

(a) Bangalore

(a) Bangalore will be answer
48.

Sugar bowl of India is ……. (a) West Bengal (b) Uttar pradesh and Bihar(c) Mumbai

Answer»

(b) Uttar pradesh and Bihar

49.

Distinguish between Renewable and non-renewable resources

Answer»

Renewable resources: 

1. These resources can be replenished after utilization. 

2. Abundantly available in nature. 

3. Eg: Sun energy, Wind etc.

Non-Renewable resources:

1. These resources cannot be regained after utilization. 

2. Limited stock take millions of years for formation. 

3. Eg: Minerals

50.

Name the important oil producing regions of India.

Answer»

West coast: Mumbai high, Gujarat coast, Basseim,Aliabet (South of Bhavanagar), Ankleshwar, Cambay – Luni region, Ahmedabad -Kaloi region and Punjab – Haryana.

East Coast: Brahmaputra valley, Digboi, Nahoratitya, Moran-Hugrijan, Rudrasagar-Lawa (Assam region), Surrma Valley. Andaman and Nicobar, Gulf of Mannar, Punjab. Haryana, Baleshwar coast.