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where is FIGURE where is figurw

Magnitude of force p := 8 NAngle between to forces p and q ;= 60°Magnitude of RESULTANT of the two forces := To Find :Magnitude of resultant angle = ?SOLUTION : ∴We know the FORMULA for resultant of the vectors p and q is :where α is any angle between the two vectors .So now putting the values in this equation we can GET the value of q as :On solving this equation we get q:= 2 NNow for FINDING the value of we take the help of attached fig and proceed as :So finally the magnitude of is .

i THINK ELECTRIC FIELD

100NExplanation:F=mg  =10KG*10m/s  =100N

specific heat CAPACITY of iron BALL is 100/10= 10 Joule/kilogram kelvinpls follow me and MARK me brainliest

metal POSSES ductile and melleable and tensile have good CONDUCTOR of ELECTRICITY but NONMETAL just opposite to

Myopia or Nearsightedness occurs when the eye loses its ABILITY to focus on far-off objects as the lenses do not possess a long FOCAL length. Objects that are near are clearly visible to patients of this defect.Reason: it can be INHERITED from the parentsType of lens used to CORRECT:A diverging lens can be used to fix the problem of nearsightedness.earlier the IMAGE was blurry as the light rays were not diverging at the right point and creating a focused image. The rays get focused before it reaches the retina. The convergence of the light rays takes place due to the cornea producing an image on the retina

ate of ABSORPTION of energy from the sun = 500 WSurface area of the BODY = 0.8 m²Emission = 0.7To find:Angle of incidence of the sun's rays along the HORIZONTAL.Answer:  = 500 W         where, α = angle of incidence of the sun rays with the horizontal                      e = EMMISIVITY                      A = area                       I = solar energy density = 1000 W/m²   500 = 1000 *0.7 *0.8 cos α         ⇒ α = 26.77 °Angle of incidence of the sun's rays along the horizontal = 26.77 °

the SCATTERING of light as a light beam passes through a COLLOID. The individual suspension particles scatter and REFLECT light, MAKING the beam visible. ... As with Rayleigh scattering, blue light is SCATTERED more strongly than red light by the

it is the past year question PAPERS comissioned by igcse BOARD for board examshope U liked itmark as brainliest

Bernoulli theorem states that the total ENERGY per UNIT mass (sum of PRESSURE energy per unit mass kinetic energy per unit mass, potential energy per unit mass ) of an ideal liquid INCOMPRESSIBLE and non viscous liquid is always constant;Explanation:

by DIVIDING it i HOPE that is RIGHT ANSWER

nitial diameter, D = 2 mmPoisson's Ratio σ = 0.5Longitudinal Strain, Δl/l = 0.1 % = 0.1 /100 = 0.001To Find :FINAL DiameterCalculation:- POISSON's ratio is given asσ = LATERAL strain / Longitudinal strain ⇒ Lateral Strain = σ × Longitudinal strain⇒ ΔD / D  = σ × Δl/l ⇒ ΔD = σ × Δl/l × D ⇒ ΔD = 0.5 × 0.001 × 2⇒ ΔD = 0.001 MM- Final diameter = Initiat diameter - change in diameter⇒ D' = D - ΔD⇒ D' = 2 - 0.001⇒ D' = 1.999 mm- So the final diameter will be 1.999 mm

hi matethe displacement that occurs in unit time is called velocity velocity = displacement/ timevelocity is a vector quantitythe SI unit is m/sthe distance travelled in a PARTICULAR DIRECTION by an object in unit time is called velocity

just TELL me it's TOPIC

10k Explanation:The formula for spring constant k=E xA / L where E is the Young's modulus of the material A the sectional area, and L is the length of the ideal spring. It means that spring constant is inversely related to length.Now if cut the spring into three PARTS, INDIVIDUAL parts would have different spring constants which would be;Length of A = 1/4L, means its K would be FOUR times nowLength of B = 2/4L, means its K would be two times nowLength of AC= 1/4L, means its K would be four times nowNow if we sum all these, their sum would be 10 times the original spring constant

i THINK SOO the answer is √5Explanation:HOPE it helps u

This the PIC of 9th CLASS lakhmir SINGH and MANJIT KAUR Explanation:

Heya✨✨Power = Work/ TIME. Work = Force x displacement So, now Power = Force x displacement / Time. But displacement / Time = velocity ACCORDING to the QUESTION, Force is F and V is velocity so, Power = F x vBut power is a scalar quantity so, we have dot product for power so...... Power = Fv or F.v

tion:If TWO thin BLANKETS are covered on a body the air may get trapped in the space between two thin blankets. As we know air is a bad conductor of heat. It does not transfer heat from our body to surroundings. Hence when two thin blankets usually warmer than ONE thick blanketPlease mark me as Brainliest ❤️❤️❤️❤️

voltage V = 150 + J 180 I =5 - j 4.To find : (i) scalar impedance (ii) RESISTANCE (iii) reactance Solution : V = I ZZ = V/I=> Z   =  (150 +  j 180  )/(5 - j 4)=  (150 +  j 180  )(5 + j 4) / (5 - j 4)(5 + j 4)= {750 - 720 + j(900 + 600)} / (25 + 16)= (1470 + j 1500)/49Scaler impedance  =  √(1470)² + (1500)² / 49  = 2100/49 = 42.86 ΩResistance = 1470/49  = 30 ΩReactance = 30.61  Ω Learn More:Determine the resonant frequency and magnification factor Q of a ...brainly.in/question/17654067Two inductors of 40mH and 50mH: Calculate a) The total inductance ...brainly.in/question/17592048

P = 600 N / m²Explanation:Given : Bulk modulus B = 6 × 10³ N / m²= > Δ V / V × 100 = 10 %= > Δ V / V = 10 / 100= > Δ V / V = 1 / 10= > Δ V / V = 10⁻¹ We know : B = P / ( Δ V / V ) = > P = B × Δ V / VPutting VALUES here we get : = > P = 6 × 10³ × 10⁻¹ = > P = 6 × 10²= > P = 600 N / m²Therefore we get required answer.

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The cross product a × b is DEFINED as a vector c that is perpendicular (ORTHOGONAL) to both a and b, with a DIRECTION given by the right-hand RULE and a magnitude equal to the area of the parallelogram that the VECTORS span......

f an object is the rate of WORK done by the object in UNIT TIME.Power,P = Work done /Time = W/t or Energy /time = E/tIts SI unit is WATT......Mark it as brainliest.

y the potential energy as a FUNCTION in the displacement x is,At x = ±2 m,This means the particle utilised its WHOLE energy to maintain its potential energy at these points, since the total energy of the particle is 1 J. By total mechanical energy conservation we get that the kinetic energy of the particle is zero at this MOMENT. By total mechanical energy conservation, we have,At This means the velocity of the particle becomes zero here, and hence the particle will not further move forward. Thus it must turn backward since it is under SHM. QED

tosis is the PROCESS through which AMOEBA TAKES in FOOD.

on a SPRING can be CONSIDERED as the simplest kind of Simple Harmonic Oscillator.With a displacement of x on MASS m , the restoring force on the spring is given by Hooke's law, withing the elastic limit,  F=-kx where k is the spring constant.Newton’s Second law in the x-direction in differential FORM therefore becomes,The above equation represents the differential form of SHM .Here the  spring  force  depends  on  the  distance x,  the  ACCELERATION is  proportional  to the negative of displacement.MARK ME BRAINLIEST ✌✌✌✌✌✌✌✌

when 1 JOULE of work is DONE through a potential difference of 1 volt then one coulomb of charge will FLOW through it.Explanation: q= w/v = 1joule / 1volt

e will EVOLVE more energy as it is MUCH more thermodynamically stable although the ENTROPY of graphite is more ..but STILL graphite will PRODUCE more energy..

the NORMAL force is of 20 kg please MARK me as brainliest

your ANSWER is A 1.5 m HOPE you LIKED OT

are used to increase the turning EFFECT of FORCE. IF MY ANSWER IS HELPFULPLEASE MARK IT BRAINLIEST

I guess U cud GOOGLE this thingExplanation:SIN YA by cos ya = DHANYA