Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

d2y/dx2

=2y/x2

=y/x

therefore, SPEED =distance/time

Step-by-step explanation:

3x² -5x +2 =0

Now DIVIDE the x² coefficient THROUGHOUT,

⇒x²- 5x/3+2/3=0

Divide the coefficient of x by 2, and square it and add it and subtract it in the equation,

⇒x²-5x/3+2/3+25/36 -25/36 =0

⇒x²-5x/3+25/36 =1/36

⇒(x-5/6)²=(1/6)²

⇒x-5/6=plus or MINUS 1/6

x-5/6=1/6 (or) x-5/6= -1/6 ⇒x= -1/6+5/6⇒x=4/6 ⇒x=2/3.

x=1.

x=1(or)2/3.

ANSWER:

answer is 3/4 .LOOK the IMAGE

Answer:

-9/5

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

let another no. be x

so ACCORDING to question

x+ (-11/5)= -4

x= -4- (-11/5)

x=-4+11/5

lcm = 5

-20+11/5= x

-9/5=x

Hey there!!

Number of days in a year differs. Because a NORMAL year has 365 days and a leap year has 366 days. For this question, I am TAKING 365 as the number.

In a century, there are 100 YEARS.

This is how the order goes:

1) Decade - 10 years

2) Century - 100 years

3) Millennium - 1000 years

Multiply them? 365 × 100 = 36500

Divide by 10 = 36500/10 = 3650

Adding 400, we get  4050

a)+3km

b)-₹500

this is UR ANSWER

ANSWER:

you should really FOCUS on the sign and then the number whose sign is GREATER write it in front of the answer

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

(11×13×17×19)+17

take common 17

Multiply by 1 because 1 is a factor of all numbers.

17(11×13×19×1)+1

17(2717)+1

17(2718)×1

It have more than two FACTORS so it is a Composite NUMBER.

ANSWER:

110

Step-by-step explanation:

total marks=4×30=120

correct answer =100 marks

INCORRECT =10

rahul score = total- incorrect

= 120-10

= 110

Answer:

Give NEWTONS laws of motion ?

Step-by-step explanation:

• First law: A particle not subjected to external forces remains at rest or MOVES with constant speed in a straight line.
• Second law: The acceleration of a particle is directly proportional to the resultant external force acting on the particle and is inversely proportional to the mass of the particle.
• Third law: If two particles interact, the force exerted by the first particle on the second particle (called the ACTION force) is equal in MAGNITUDE and opposite in direction to the force exerted by the second particle on the first particle (called the reaction force).

HOPE IT HELPS!!

_______________________________

<P>Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

total no of CARDS: 52

no of kings: 4(2red 2black)

p(GETTING a king): 4/52= 1/13

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer. By the mathematical induction we have to prove this. ⇒ Given that S(n) = n3-n divisible by 6. Let n =1 then we get '0' which is divisible by 6. ∴ S(1) is true. Let us assume that n = k S(k) = k3- k which is divisible by 6. ∴ S(k) is true. ∴ (k3-k) / 6 = m ( integer ) (k3-k) = 6M k3= 6m +k --------→(1) now we have to prove that n = k+1 ⇒ (k+1)3 - (k+1) ⇒ (k3+3k2+3K+1) - (k+1) subsitute equation (1) in above equation then ⇒ 6m +k+3k2+2k ⇒ 6m +3k2+k ⇒ 6m +3k(k+1) ( ∴k(k+1) = 2P is an even number p is natural number) ⇒ 6m +3x2p ⇒ 6(m +p) ∴which is divisible by 6 s(k+1) is true. By the mathematical induction it is true for n∈N.

Answer:

3ABC-[2ABC+{5ABC-(-9ABC)}]

=3abc-[2abc+{5abc+9abc}]

=3abc-[2abc+14abc]

=3abc-16abc

=-13abc

Answer:

This EVENT is CERTAIN

Step-by-step explanation:

An event is SAID to be certain if it has a chance to occur 100%, As there are only 7 days in a week and one among it is thursday , and it is sure or there is an 100% probability that the thursday will APPEAR in one among the 7 days that follow, so we can CONCLUDE that the event is certain.

ANSWER:

HEYA MATE there's your answer

1/4-(3/4)-(2/3)

=1-3/4-(2/3)

=-2/4-(2/3)

=-1/2-(2/3)

=-(1/2+2/3)

=-7/6

hope it HELPS you

THANK you

<P>ANSWER:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given, p(X)= 8X-2

Let 8x - 2 = 0

8x = 2

x = 2/8

x = 1/4

ANSWER:

( 8;-8)...............
...

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

NOTE:- CHECK attachment

Be BRAINLY

 HCF of the smallest COMPOSITE number and the smallest PRIME number = 2

smallest composite number = 4     

                                                = 2 × 2

smallest prime number = 2

i HOPE it help you.....

HOPE it HELPS U.........

ANSWER:

Step-by-step explanation:

Area is l*b

10*20

200cm

If length is double then

L= 2*10

20cm

New area is l*b

20*20

400cm

Hope it HELPS

PLEASE mark it brainliest :)

LET the TERMS be a,a+d,a+2d

a+a+d+a+2d=45

3a+3d=45

a+d=15

Given...a(a+2d)-(a+d)=41

a^2+2ad-a-d=41

ANSWER:

so, the 6TH TERM is 9.

because a+5d= 6th term.

HEY there

refer to ATTACHMENT

ANSWER:

1+8X is the answer ..U can't further FACTORIES UT

ANSWER:

RIGHT ANGLE EQUATE angle

there is no DIAGRAM

Answer:

22/24*100=91.67%of PURE GOLD

HELLO DEAR...

SEE this ATTACHMENT...

hope it helps... Insha Allah..

REMAINDER---52√2x+x

Hope it HELP you.

495,786, have SIX digits

hope HELPFUL for you ✌️✌️✌️

please FOLLOW me

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

But where is f(x).........

MUST POST proper QUESTIONS

ANSWER:

(-8, 8) (16,-4) (32,-2)

Answer:

heya mate there's your answer

-1×(-39)

=1×39 (minus ×minus =PLUS)

=+39

so required INTEGER is -39

hope it helps you

Thank you

ANSWER :

The amount after 3 year at 4% rate is RS. 42,000.

STEP by step explanation :

Hey Mate,

In COMPOUND Half Yearly, Interest will be half and Time get double.

So,

New

R = 4 %

T = 3 Years.

P = 37,500

So,

S.I = ( PRT/ 100 )

S.I = ( 37,500 × 4 × 3 ) / 100

S.I = Rs. 4500

So, The amount should be S.I + Principle

A = 4500 + 37,500

A = ₹ 42,000

Answer:

to PROVE PRODUCT of TWO POSITIVE integers is DIVISIBLE by two:

10*2/2

20/2

10

ANSWER:

The standard equation for the ENERGY of MOVEMENT (kinetic energy) is: That is, kinetic energy is equal to half the mass multiplied by the VELOCITY squared.

DERIVATION IS IN THE IMAGE

ANSWER:

Hdjnxgvjxngxjgsjgxkh uldjtdmh

Answer:

-16.4..

Step-by-step explanation:

For CONVERTING a fraction into decimal.. We NEED to divide the numerator by denominator..

So in this case.. DIVIDING - 113 by 7..

It COMES out to be - 16.14..

Hope it helps..

Please MARK it brainliest..

Answer:

The polynomial {\displaystyle 3-5x+2x^{5}-7x^{9}} 3-5x+2x^{5}-7x^{9} is a nonic polynomial

The polynomial {\displaystyle (y-3)(2y+6)(-4y-21)} (y-3)(2y+6)(-4y-21) is a cubic polynomial

The polynomial {\displaystyle (3Z^{8}+z^{5}-4z^{2}+6)+(-3z^{8}+8z^{4}+2z^{3}+14z)} (3z^{8}+z^{5}-4z^{2}+6)+(-3z^{8}+8z^{4}+2z^{3}+14z) is a quintic polynomial (as the {\displaystyle z^{8}} z^{8} are cancelled out)

The CANONICAL forms of the three examples above are:

for {\displaystyle 3-5x+2x^{5}-7x^{9}} 3-5x+2x^{5}-7x^{9}, after reordering, {\displaystyle -7x^{9}+2x^{5}-5x+3} -7x^{9}+2x^{5}-5x+3;

for {\displaystyle (y-3)(2y+6)(-4y-21)} (y-3)(2y+6)(-4y-21), after multiplying out and collecting terms of the same degree, {\displaystyle -8y^{3}-42y^{2}+72y+378} -8y^{3}-42y^{2}+72y+378;

for {\displaystyle (3z^{8}+z^{5}-4z^{2}+6)+(-3z^{8}+8z^{4}+2z^{3}+14z)} (3z^{8}+z^{5}-4z^{2}+6)+(-3z^{8}+8z^{4}+2z^{3}+14z), in which the two terms of degree 8 cancel, {\displaystyle z^{5}+8z^{4}+2z^{3}-4z^{2}+14z+6} z^{5}+8z^{4}+2z^{3}-4z^{2}+14z+6

Step-by-step explanation:

The degree of {\displaystyle (X^{3}+x)+(x^{2}+1)=x^{3}+x^{2}+x+1} (x^{3}+x)+(x^{2}+1)=x^{3}+x^{2}+x+1 is 3. Note that 3 ≤ max(3, 2)

The degree of {\displaystyle (x^{3}+x)-(x^{3}+x^{2})=-x^{2}+x} (x^{3}+x)-(x^{3}+x^{2})=-x^{2}+x is 2. Note that 2 ≤ max(3, 3)

Scalar multiplication

Edit

The degree of the product of a polynomial by a non-zero scalar is equal to the degree of the polynomial, i.e.

{\displaystyle \deg(cP)=\deg(P)} \deg(cP)=\deg(P).

E.g.

The degree of {\displaystyle 2(x^{2}+3x-2)=2x^{2}+6x-4} 2(x^{2}+3x-2)=2x^{2}+6x-4 is 2, just as the degree of {\displaystyle x^{2}+3x-2} x^{2}+3x-2.

Note that for polynomials over a RING containing divisors of zero, this is not necessarily true. For example, in {\displaystyle \mathbf {Z} /4\mathbf {Z} } {\mathbf {Z}}/4{\mathbf {Z}}, {\displaystyle \deg(1+2x)=1} \deg(1+2x)=1, but {\displaystyle \deg(2(1+2x))=\deg(2+4x)=\deg(2)=0} \deg(2(1+2x))=\deg(2+4x)=\deg(2)=0.

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

A+B+C=180 so that

B+C=180-A

A-B-C=A-(B+C)=A-(180-A)=2A-180

TAN(x-y)=(tanx-tany)/(1+tanxtany)

tan(2A-180)=(tan2A-tan(180))/(1_+tan2Atan(180))=tan2A/1-tan2A) SINCE tan(180)=-1

ANSWER:

The square root of ONE THOUSAND, EIGHT hundred and forty-six √1846 = 42.965102117882

Step-by-step explanation:

MARK MY ANS AS BRAINLIEST

Given Cos(A + B) + sin(A - B) = 2sin(45° + A)cos(45° + B)
lift hand side ( LHS )
Cos(A + B) + sin(A - B)
cosAcosB - sinAsinB + sinAcosB - COSASINB

RHS
=> 2(sin45°cosA + cos45°sinA)(cos45cosB - sin45sinB)

=>2(√2/2cosA + √2/2sinA)(√2/2cosB - √2/2sinB)

=> 2( (1/2)cosAcosB - (1/2)cosAsinB + (1/2)sinAcosB - (1/2)sinAsinB)

=> cosAcosB - cosAsinB + sinAcosB - sinAsinB

LHS = RHS  

HOPE IT'S HELP

I don't KNOW because I am a FAILURE in MATHS

Here Is Your Ans

____

BY PYTHAGORAS Theorem

h² = p² + b² ---- 1

Divide b² In equation 1

=> Sec²¤ = Tan²¤ + 1

_______

Hope It Helps U

The set of integers WHOSE product is -64 is

-8, 8.

Mark me as BRAINLIEST and follow me

Answer:

lets try to find the SQUARE root of 7581

Step-by-step explanation:

after taking out the root we will see that 87Squqre is LESS than 7581 by 12 so 12 should be subtracted from 7581 to make it a PERFECT square perfect square=7581-12 =7569 and root over of 7569=87

HEY there!!

Rakesh is ABLE to complete a job in 6 days. Then, in one day he is able to complete 1/6th of the work. Hence, Rakesh work rate is 1/6.

Raman can finish the work in x days. Then, he is able to complete 1/x th work in one day. Hence, the work rate for Raman in 1/x.

Both of them together complete the work in 4 days. If they work together, in one day, 1/4th of the work is done.

Now,we can write the equation as :

x = 12

Hence, Raman completes the work in 12 days.

HOPE it helps!

Answer: it will take 20 days.because when they WORK together Ram will finish it fast,but Raju NEED 20 days . So after Ram's work Raju will do it