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The Prime Minister of India now receives a monthly salary of a Member of Parliament

The most powerful Upper House among the following is the Senate in the USA

The tenure of office of the Indian President  is fixed by the Constitution

Allergy. Mast Cells are responsible for such reactions. 
To avoid such reactions following precautions must be taken. 
(i) The use of drugs like antihistamine, adrenalin and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy. 
(ii) Avoid contact with substances to which a person is hypersensitive.

An abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells is termed as Cancer.
The Cancerous cells are different from the normal cells in the following ways.

In our body, the growth and differentiation of cells is highly controlled and regulated. The normal cells show a property called contact inhibition.

The surrounding cells inhibit uncontrolled growth and division of cells.
The normal cells lose this property and become cancerous cells giving rise to masses of cells called tumors. Transformation of normal cells into cancerous cells is induced by some physical, chemical and biological agents (carcinogens).

Allergy. Mast Cells are responsible for such reactions.
To avoid such reactions following precautions must be taken.
(i) The use of drugs like antihistamine, adrenalin and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy.
(ii) Avoid contact with substances to which a person is hypersensitive.

(C) 30 S and 50 S

The correct answer is Arabian Peninsula.

• Arabian Peninsula is the largest peninsula in the world.
• The Arabian Peninsula includes Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), and Yemen, as well as the southern portions of Iraq and Jordan.
• The biggest of these is Saudi Arabia.
• The Peninsula, plus Bahrain, the Socotra Archipelago, and other nearby islands form a geopolitical region called Arabia.
• It connects the mainland Asian continent and surrounded on all sides by the Persian Gulf, the Arabian Sea, and the Red Sea.

(D) Enzymes made up of RNA

The correct answer is Alla Rakha.

• Ustaad Allarakha Qureshi popularly known as Alla Rakha was an Indian tabla player who specialized in Hindustani classical.
• Trippunithura Narayanaiyer Krishnan was an Indian Carnatic music violinist.
• Pandit Bhimsen Gururaj Joshi was a legendary Hindustani classical vocalist.
  • He is renowned for the khayal form of singing, as well as for his popular renditions of devotional music.

The correct answer is Landlords.

• Jagirdars
  • The Jagirdari system was introduced by the Delhi Sultanate and continued during the Mughal Empire.
  • Jagirdars were the King's officials who enjoyed the land gifted from the King.
  • Jagirdars were the intermediaries that collected the land revenue for the king during the Mughal Rule.
  • The Jagirdars were not the permanent holder of Land so they tried to collect as much revenue as possible from the land.
  • The Jagirdars were allotted non-inheritable land area equivalent to their fee amount called Jagir.
  • After the collapse of the Mughal Empire, the system of jagirs was retained by Rajput, Yadav, Jat, Saini, and Sikh jat kingdoms. 

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

• As per Kshatriya theory of origin Rajputs based on their lineage as Suryavanshi and Chandravanshi.
• As per Agnikunda theory of origin Rajputs clan from Agnikunda are Chauhans, Chalukyas, Parmaras and Pratiharas.
• Hence both the statements are incorrect.

• Kshatriya theory of the origin:
  • This theory was propounded by Gauri Shankar Ojha and says that the Rajputs are not from a foreign origin and they are descendants of the mythological Kshatriya Heroes like Rama.
  • The theory divides the Rajput based on their lineage as Suryavanshi & Chandravanshi, which they trace from Surya and Chandra.
  • They worship fire as the Aryans did and worship of fire was not the tradition of the Foreigners only.
• Agnikunda Theory:
  • This theory comes from the Prithvirajraso of Chandarbardai.
  • According to this theory, Rajputs were the result of Yagya performed by Hrishi Vashistha at “Guru Shikhar” in Mount Abu.
  • The four Rajput clans from Agnikunda are Chauhans, Chalukyas, Parmaras and Pratiharas.
  • Muhnot Nainsi & Suryamal Mishra also supports this theory.

The correct answer is Dharmapala.

• Dharmapala was the second ruler of the Pala Empire of Bengal region in the Indian Subcontinent.
  • He was the son and successor of Gopala, the founder of the Pala Dynasty.

• Raja Watsraj Pratihara:
  • He was the first Pratihara ruler who occupied the Kanauj.
  • He defeated Dharmapala of Gauda country.
  • But he was defeated in the hands of Dhruva of Rashtrakuta dynasty.
• Raja Nagabhata II Pratihara:
  • He got victory over Kannauj.
  • He was defeated in the hands of Govinda of Rashtrakuta dynasty.
  • He defeated Dharmapala and Chakrayudha in the battle of Mudgagiri.
• Raja Mihir Bhoj Pratihara:
  • During the period of Mihira Bhoja Kanauj was restored to its former glory.
  • Mihira Bhoja defeated Devapala of Bengal.
  • Suleiman, Arab traveller visited the court of Mihira Bhoja in 851 A.D

• Pratihara Of Mandore:
  • Harichandra alias Rohilladhi (c. 550 CE)
  • Rajilla (c. 575 CE)
  • Narabhatta alias Pellapelli (c. 600 CE)
  • Nagabhata alias Nahada (c. 625 CE)
  • Tata and Bhoja (c. 650 CE)
  • Yashovardhana (c. 675 CE)
  • Chanduka (c. 700 CE)
  • Shiluka alias Silluka (c. 725 CE)
  • Jhota (c. 750 CE)
  • Bhilladitya alias Bhilluka (c. 775 CE)
  • Kakka (c. 800 CE)
  • Bauka (c. 825 CE)
  • Kakkuka (c. 861 CE)
• Pratihara Of Jalore:
  • Raja Mahendrapal Pratihara
  • Raja Mahipal Pratihara
  • Raja Vinayakpal Pratihara
  • Raja Mahendrapal II Pratihara
  • Raja Vijaypal Pratihara
  • Raja Rajyapal Pratihara
  • Raja Trilochnpal Pratihara
  • Raja YashPal Pratihara

The correct answer is Bharatrabhartta - I.

• List of rulers of Gurjara-Partihar dynasty:
  • Nagabhata I (730–760)
  • Kakustha and Devaraja (760–780)
  • Vatsaraja (780–800)
  • Nagabhata II (800–833)
  • Ramabhadra (833–836)
  • Mihira Bhoja or Bhoja I (836–885)
  • Mahendrapala I (885–910)
  • Bhoja II (910–913)
  • Mahipala I (913–944)
  • Mahendrapala II (944–948)
  • Devapala (948–954)
  • Vinayakapala (954–955)
  • Mahipala II (955–956)
  • Vijayapala II (956–960)
  • Rajapala (960–1018)
  • Trilochanapala (1018–1027)
  • Yasahpala (1024–1036)

If he does not carry out my orders, he will be sacked.

If you do not read the clause carefully, you will not understand it.

If she does not buy a ticket, she will not be allowed to watch the programme.

Padma : Did you see the dentist last week?

Devi : No, I will be seeing the dentist next week. 

Padma asked Devi if she had seen the dentist the previous week. Devi said that she had not and that she would be seeing the dentist the following week.

Annette : I want to order a big pineapple cake for my husband’s birthday.

Confectioner : When is his birthday and at what time do you want it to be delivered?

Annette told the Confectioner that she wanted to order a big pineapple cake for her husband’s birthday. The confectioner asked Annette when his birthday was and at what time she wanted it to be delivered.

(a) As children, the poet and her friends had played under the tree. This experience has made the tree dear to the poet. 

(b) The poet is unable to forget the wonderful time she had under the tree with her friends.

Lady to the Judge : This man is responsible for the accident.

Man : No, my Lord. This lady does not know how to drive a car. 

The lady told the Judge that, that man was responsible for the accident. The man denied the lady’s statement respectfully and said that that lady did not know how to drive a car.

(a) The negative outcome of battle at Ratisbon may hamper his soaring plans. 

(b) ‘plans that soar’ – Metaphor.

Concepts:

If 'p' then 'q' , denoted by p → q where p and q are the hypothesis and conclusion respectively.

p → q denotes implies also,

~ p denotes not p means negation

~ q denotes not q means negation

q → p denotes converse, which means if q then p.

the converse is not true even if the implication is true.

~ p → ~ q denotes inverse, which means if not p then not q.

the inverse is not true even if the implication is true. 

~ q → ~ p  contrapositive,

the contrapositive is true if the implication is true and vice versa.

Given:

p : TV is on

q : switch off the radio

Truth table 

Where T is true denotes positive statement and F is False denotes the negative statement,

The logical equivalence from the truth table :

Implication and contrapositive result is the same i.e, if p happens then q will happen which implies if q won't happen then p also won't happen.

Thus "If the TV is on then Amit will switch off the radio." logical equivalent statement is "If Amit does not switch off the radio then TV must not be on.".

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

NOTE:

This is not an english language problem, It is about discrete mathematics proposition logic equivalence.

(a) Napoleon Bonaparte is described as the chief. 

(b) Simile.

The correct answer is Diclofenac.

• Diclofenac is used commonly to treat mild to moderate post-operative or post-traumatic pain, in particular when inflammation is also present and is effective against menstrual pain and endometriosis.
  • Diclofenac also aids in easing pains caused by sprains, concussions etc.
  • Diclofenac is sold as eye drops to treat non-bacterial inflammation on the anterior part of the eyes.
  • They are also used to handle the pain from corneal abrasion diclofenac is often used to treat chronic pain associated with cancer, especially if inflammation is present.
• The government had prohibited the use of diclofenac for veterinary operations in 2006 after it was found that the once-thriving vulture population in the country was brought to near extinction after consuming the carcasses of animals that were illegally treated with human formulations of the drug.
  • Along with this, an increased risk of cardiovascular disease was also considered. Thus the decision was made to ban the drug completely.

• To study the cause of the deaths of vultures in India, a Vulture Care Centre (VCC) was set up at Pinjore, Haryana in 2001.
  • Later in 2004, the VCC was upgraded to being the first Vulture Conservation and Breeding Centres (VCBC) in India. At present, there are nine Vulture Conservation and Breeding Centres (VCBC) in India, of which three are directly administered by the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS). The main objective of the VCBCs was to look after the vultures and breed them in captivity and also release them into the wild.
• India’s conservation efforts are focussed on the three species of vultures that are Critically Endangered according to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) namely,
  • White-backed Vulture
  • Slender-billed Vulture
  • Long-billed Vulture

(a) ‘Dirge’ means a lament for the dead. 

(b) The tree laments the absence of the poet.

a. False. 

b. True. 

c. True. 

d. True. The Ionising Radiation Regulations 1999 (IRR99) require that patient dose assessment be part of the equipment quality assurance programme, making it important to audit patient dose. 

e. False.

At resonance, L/C = Z² or C = L/Z² 

X_L = 2π × 50 × 5.52 × 10⁻³ 

= 1.734 Ω, Z² = 10² + 1.734² , Z = 10.1Ω 

C = 5.52 × 10⁻³/10.1 = 54.6 μF

a. True. The electrons penetrate deeper into the anode material and the photons produced have a greater distance to travel through it. 

b. False. Anode rotation does not directly affect the heel effect. However, the heel effect is of less significance in stationary anodes tubes as they tend to have larger anode angles (due to thermal factors), and the field uniformity is not as critical in the applications they are used in.

c. False. With a long focus-to-film distance, only the central, more uniform part of the beam is used to produce the image and the heel effect is less noticeable. 

d. False. The anode side (with a lower intensity of the beam due to the heel effect) should point away from the chest wall (where the thickness of breast tissue is less). 

e. True. It may be used to compensate for varying patient thickness along the cranio-caudal axis. For example, antero-posterior (AP) images of the thoracic spine are normally more penetrated (darker) towards the upper vertebrae. With the anode facing cranially, more uniform images can be obtained.

Y₁ = 1/(6 + j8) = (6 - j8)/(6² + 8²) + 0.06 - j0.08 Siemens, 

Y = 1/(8 - j6) = (8 + j6)/100 = 0.08 + j0.06 Siemens

(a) Combined admittance is 

Y = Y₁ + Y₂ = 0.14 −j0.02 = 0.1414 ∠− 88º′ Siemens 

Conductance, G = 0.14 Siemens ; Susceptance, B = −0.02 Siemens (inductive) 

(b) Let V = 200 ∠ 0º ; I = VY = 200 × 0.1414 ∠−8º8′ V = 28.3 ∠−8º8′ 

p.f. = cos 8º8′ = 0.99 (lag)

a. False. It is due to attenuation of X-ray photons produced by the target material. 

b. False. Due to anode angulation, photons emitted towards the anode side of the field need to penetrate a larger thickness of the anode material and therefore undergo more attenuation.

c. True. The steeper the target, the larger the thickness of the target material that needs to be penetrated on the anode side. 

d. False. It is more noticeable at low kVp, as the photons are less penetrating and the differences in attenuation on the cathode and anode sides are more pronounced. 

e. True. Because photons penetrating through the target material in addition to attenuation also undergo filtration.

Correct answer is (B) x² – 5x + 6

a. False. It occurs because X-rays are divergent from their source. 

b. False. This decreases magnification. 

c. True. The object-to-film distance would increase. 

d. True. In this case, there would be no magnification. 

e. True.

a. True. A slit camera consists of a metal plate with a slit positioned between the tube and the image receptor. One dimension of the focal spot can be calculated from magnification of the slit image. This is then repeated for the other dimension with the slit perpendicular to its original position. 

b. True. This involves a test object with markings at a set distance apart with which an image is produced of a certain magnification. The degree of blurring of the markings in the image can be used to estimate focal spot size, as it is greater with a larger focal spot. 

c. True. 

d. True. This allows greater tube loading and higher output, which is often necessary when imaging larger parts of the body. It also increases the size of the field coverage at short focal spot-to-image distances. 

e. True. It is also determined by the width of the focusing cup at the cathode.

a. True. 

b. True. Increasing the anode angle increases the size of the actual focal spot and so a greater tube current or kVp may be used. 

c. True. 

d. True. 

e. False. It does not affect scatter.

a. True. 

b. True. The larger the focal spot size, the larger the penumbra (image blur around the edges of an object). 

c. True. The closer the object to the detector, the less unsharpness.

d. True. The closer the focus to the film, the more geometric unsharpness. In summary, geometric unsharpness depends on the focal spot size (f ), object-to-film distance (h) and focus-to-film distance (FFD) and is given by the formula U_g = fh/(FFD – h). 

e. True. This is because the projected focal spot decreases in size towards the anode side.

Correct answer is (C) x² – 3x – 28

a. True. 

b. False. The effective focal spot is the area of the actual focal spot viewed from the film. Due to anode angulation, it is smaller than the actual focal spot. 

c. True. 

d. False. It is usually 7–20. 

e. True.

Solution:
Let a be the positive integer and b = 4.
Then, by Euclid’s algorithm, a = 4m + r for
some integer m ≥ 0 and r = 0, 1, 2, 3 because 0 ≤ r < 4.
So, a = 4m or 4m + 1 or 4m + 2 or 4m + 3.
So, (4m)² = 16m² = 4(4m²)
= 4q, where q is some integer.
(4m + 1)² = 16m² + 8m + 1
= 4(4m² + 2m) + 1
= 4q + 1, where q is some integer.
(4m + 2)² = 16m² + 16m + 4
= 4(4m² + 4m + 1)
= 4q, where q is some integer.

(4m + 3)² = 16m² + 24m + 9
= 4(4m² + 6m + 2) + 1
= 4q + 1, where q is some integer.
Hence, The square of any positive integer is either of the form 4q or 4q + 1, where q is some integer.

Correct answer is (A) 1

Correct answer is (A) 2

a. True. However, this may not always be possible (e.g. in case of movement blur due to heart beating). 

b. True. 

c. True. In this case, the same amount of object movement will translate to a larger distance on the film. 

d. False. It may increase motion blur as it necessitates increased exposure time. 

e. True. This is because to expose the film in a shorter time, the tube current needs to be increased, which may require selecting a larger focal spot. The size of the focal spot may also increase with a higher tube current due to the blooming effect.