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This section includes InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 151. |
Which of the following is not one of the states of lipids?(a) Para crystalline state(b) Liquid ordered state(c) Liquid disordered state(d) Crystalline state |
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Answer» The correct option is (d) Crystalline state Easiest explanation: Para crystalline state, liquid ordered state and liquid disordered state are the states of lipids. |
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| 152. |
Which of the following is an example of peripheral membrane protein?(a) Insulin receptor(b) Glycophorin(c) Integrin(d) Glycolipid transfer proteins |
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Answer» The correct option is (d) Glycolipid transfer proteins The explanation is: Insulin receptor, glycophorin and integrin are integral membranes. |
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| 153. |
Which of the following is involved in phospho-tyrosine binding?(a) SH2(b) SH3(c) PTB(d) PH |
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Answer» Right choice is (a) SH2 The explanation is: SH3 is involved in proline rich motif binding. |
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| 154. |
Which of the following integral membrane protein is a special class of membrane rafts?(a) Caveolin(b) Integrin(c) Cadherin(d) Selectin |
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Answer» Right choice is (a) Caveolin To explain: Caveolin is a special class of membrane rafts. |
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| 155. |
Which of the following is not an important precursor of glucose in animals?(a) Lactate(b) Pyruvate(c) Glycerol(d) Glucose 6-phosphate |
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Answer» Correct option is (d) Glucose 6-phosphate To elaborate: The important precursors of glucose in animals are three-carbon compounds such as lactate, pyruvate and glycerol as well as certain amino acids. |
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| 156. |
Activation of guanylyl cyclase produces ____________(a) Guanosine 3’, 5’-cyclic monophosphate(b) Guanosine 2’, 5’-cyclic monophosphate(c) Guanosine 4’, 5’-cyclic monophosphate(d) Guanosine 1’, 5’-cyclic monophosphate |
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Answer» The correct option is (a) Guanosine 3’, 5’-cyclic monophosphate Best explanation: Guanosine 3’, 5’-cyclic monophosphate is produced by the activation of guanylyl cyclase. |
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| 157. |
Voltage regulation means ____________(a) Na^+/K^+ pumps controls potential(b) Unless the voltage is regular gates will not respond(c) Oscilloscope only can control potential(d) With changes in the membrane potential voltage gated ion channels open and close |
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Answer» Right option is (d) With changes in the membrane potential voltage gated ion channels open and close Explanation: With changes in the membrane potential voltage gated ion channels open and close, this is regulation of voltage. |
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| 158. |
Which second messenger signals the release of Ca^+2 from endoplasmic reticulum?(a) IP3(b) 1, 2 diacyl glycerol(c) cAMP(d) cGMP |
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Answer» Correct answer is (a) IP3 Easiest explanation: IP3 binds to the receptor present on endoplasmic reticulum causing it to release calcium ions. |
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| 159. |
Which of the following is false?(a) Actin is a thin filament(b) Myosin is a thick filament(c) The band in a myofibril is an area of thin filament(d) Functional unit of muscle is sarcomere |
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Answer» Right choice is (c) The band in a myofibril is an area of thin filament Explanation: The band in a myofibril is an area of thick filament. |
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| 160. |
Phosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol yields __________(a) Phosphatidylinositol 4, 5-biphosphate(b) Phosphatidylinositol 3, 5-biphosphate(c) Phosphatidylinositol 3, 4-biphosphate(d) Phosphatidylinositol 5, 6-biphosphate |
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Answer» Right choice is (a) Phosphatidylinositol 4, 5-biphosphate Explanation: Phosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol yields phosphatidylinositol 4, 5-biphosphate. |
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| 161. |
Which of the following statements is false about ATP hydrolysis?(a) It is highly exergonic(b) Activation energy is relatively high(c) ∆G^‘°=-30.5kJ/mol(d) ∆G^‘°=30.5kJ/mol |
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Answer» Correct choice is (d) ∆G^‘°=30.5kJ/mol To explain: ∆G^‘° should be negative for an exergonic process. |
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| 162. |
The deficiency of which of the following enzyme leads to galactosemia?(a) Galactokinase(b) Pyruvate kinase(c) PFK-1(d) PFK-2 |
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Answer» Correct option is (a) Galactokinase Best explanation: In galactokinase deficiency galactosemia, high galactose concentrations are found in blood and urine. |
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| 163. |
Which of the following is a short-lived messenger that acts by stimulating a soluble guanylyl cyclase, raising [cGMP] and stimulating PKG?(a) NO(b) NO2(c) NO3^–(d) N2O |
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Answer» Right answer is (a) NO To explain I would say: NO is a short-lived messenger that acts by stimulating a soluble guanylyl cyclase, raising [cGMP] and stimulating PKG. |
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| 164. |
Which of the following catalyzes the reversible degradation of 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate?(a) Chymotrypsin(b) Hexokinase(c) Enolase(d) Trypsin |
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Answer» Correct answer is (c) Enolase The best explanation: Enolase catalyzes the reversible degradation of 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate. |
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| 165. |
Which of the following enzyme catalyses the direct transfer and incorporation of O2 into a substrate molecule is(a) Reductase(b) Oxidase(c) Oxygenase(d) Peroxidase |
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Answer» Right choice is (c) Oxygenase Easiest explanation: Oxygenase catalyses the direct transfer and incorporation of O2 into a substrate molecule. |
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| 166. |
Which of the following glycerophospholid acts as a lipotropic agent?(a) Cardiolipin(b) Phosphatidylserine(c) Phosphatidylinositol(d) Phosphatidylcholine |
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Answer» Right answer is (d) Phosphatidylcholine For explanation: Only phosphatidylcholine acts as a lipotropic agent. |
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| 167. |
The molecule which acts directly on an enzyme to lower its catalytic rate is __________(a) Repressor(b) Inhibitor(c) Modulator(d) Regulator |
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Answer» Correct choice is (b) Inhibitor The explanation: An inhibitor is a substance that interferes with the substrate-active site binding and slows down the catalytic rate. |
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| 168. |
Which of the following fatty acid has 16 carbon atoms?(a) Linolenic acid(b) Oleic acid(c) Palmitic acid(d) Stearic acid |
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Answer» Correct choice is (c) Palmitic acid The explanation: Linolenic, oleic and stearic acids have 18 carbons. |
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| 169. |
Which of the following is an essential fatty acid?(a) Linolenic(b) Palmitic(c) Oleic(d) Stearic |
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Answer» The correct choice is (a) Linolenic Best explanation: Linoleic and alpha linolenic acids are the two essential fatty acids. |
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| 170. |
The catalytic efficiency of two distinct enzymes can be compared based on which of the following factor?(a) Km(b) Product formation(c) Size of the enzymes(d) pH of optimum value |
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Answer» Correct option is (a) Km To explain I would say: Km is the substrate concentration. Increased substrate concentration increases the rate of reaction. |
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| 171. |
Which of the following bacterium is used for gene transfer in plants?(a) Agrobacterium(b) Azatobacter(c) Rhizobium(d) Ecoli |
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Answer» Right choice is (a) Agrobacterium Easiest explanation: Agrobacterium is the only bacterium capable of transferring genes to plants. |
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| 172. |
How many carbons are present in geranyl pyrophosphate?(a) 8(b) 9(c) 10(d) 11 |
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Answer» The correct answer is (c) 10 To explain: Geranyl pyrophosphate is a 10-carbon chain. |
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| 173. |
Which of the following catalyzes the reversible reaction of β-D-Glucose to glucose 6-phosphate?(a) Chymotrypsin(b) Hexokinase(c) Enolase(d) Trypsin |
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Answer» The correct answer is (b) Hexokinase To elaborate: Hexokinase catalyzes the reversible reaction of β-D-Glucose to glucose 6-phosphate. |
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| 174. |
Which of the following is used to transfer genes in plants?(a) Ti plasmid(b) pBR 322(c) EcorI(d) pUC 18 |
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Answer» Right option is (a) Ti plasmid Easiest explanation: Ti plasmid of agrobacterium is used to transfer genes in plants. |
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| 175. |
In maltose, between which of the following carbons there is a linkage?(a) C1, C2(b) C2, C3(c) C1, C4(d) C2, C4 |
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Answer» Correct option is (c) C1, C4 The best I can explain: Maltose contains two D-glucose residues joined by a glycosidic linkage between C1 of one glucose residue and C4 of the other. |
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| 176. |
Which of the following statements is true about a vector?(a) Plasmids, phages can be used as vectors(b) All vectors are plasmids(c) Cyanobacteria can also be used as vectors(d) Fungi can also be used as vectors |
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Answer» Right option is (a) Plasmids, phages can be used as vectors To explain: Plasmids and phages can be used as vectors. |
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| 177. |
Glucose is added to the tissue culture media as a/an __________(a) Carbon source(b) Growth regulator(c) Solidifying agent(d) Antibiotic |
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Answer» Right choice is (a) Carbon source The explanation: Energy is derived from glucose. |
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| 178. |
Which of the following is true about restriction endonucleases?(a) Type I and II requires ATP to move along DNA(b) Type I, II and III requires ATP to move along DNA(c) Type II requires no ATP and cleaves DNA within recognition sequence(d) Type II requires ATP and cleaves DNA within recognition sequence |
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Answer» Correct answer is (c) Type II requires no ATP and cleaves DNA within recognition sequence Easy explanation: Type I and III requires ATP to move along DNA. |
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| 179. |
Which of the following does not act as a restriction enzyme?(a) EcorI(b) BamHI(c) HindIII(d) polydeoxyribonucleotide synthase |
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Answer» Correct choice is (d) polydeoxyribonucleotide synthase To explain I would say: Polydeoxtribonucleotide synthase is a DNA ligase. |
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| 180. |
Which out of the following statements is true about gene regulation in bacteria?(a) Repressor protein blocks transcription by binding to operator sequence(b) Activator proteins bind near promoters and increase the efficiency of transcription(c) Enhancers commonly regulate transcription(d) Genes with related functions are often grouped together and have a single start codon |
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Answer» Correct choice is (a) Repressor protein blocks transcription by binding to operator sequence The best explanation: A repressor binds at operator element and regulates transcription negatively. |
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| 181. |
Transgenic organisms are generally __________(a) Extinct organisms(b) Naturally occurring and endemic(c) Produced by traditional plant breeding technique(d) Produced by gene transfer technology |
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Answer» Correct choice is (d) Produced by gene transfer technology Easy explanation: Transgenic technology, also known as genetic engineering involves the transfer of genes from one species to another. |
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| 182. |
Which of the following is true about plasmids?(a) They are present in all organisms(b) They are present in bacteria only(c) They are present in bacteria and phages(d) They are present in plants and animals |
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Answer» The correct answer is (c) They are present in bacteria and phages For explanation: Plasmids cannot be found in animal cells. They are found only in bacteria and phages. |
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| 183. |
cDNA, a term used in recombinant DNA technology means ____________(a) Competitive DNA(b) Chemical DNA(c) Complex DNA(d) Complementary DNA |
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Answer» Right answer is (d) Complementary DNA Explanation: Complementary DNA is also termed as cDNA. |
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| 184. |
Agar is extracted from ____________(a) Fungi(b) Bacteria(c) Algae(d) Virus |
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Answer» Correct option is (c) Algae Explanation: Agar is obtained from an alga. |
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| 185. |
Which of the following statements is false?(a) The cells which take up recombinant plasmids are drug resistant(b) The cells with no recombinant plasmids are drug resistant(c) Plasmid replication is independent of cell’s division(d) The cells containing recombinant plasmid are called transformed cells |
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Answer» The correct choice is (a) The cells which take up recombinant plasmids are drug resistant To explain: Recombinant plasmid contains a drug resistant gene. |
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| 186. |
In hybridization method, which of the following is pressed onto agar?(a) Silicon paper(b) Nitrocellulose paper(c) Filter paper(d) PVDF |
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Answer» Right answer is (b) Nitrocellulose paper For explanation I would say: Nitrocellulose membrane has high binding capacity for proteins. |
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| 187. |
DNA Ligase, used in recombinant DNA technology is obtained from _______________(a) E.coli only(b) E.coli and also Ligase encoded by T4 phage(c) Saccharomyces(d) Retroviruses |
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Answer» Right answer is (b) E.coli and also Ligase encoded by T4 phage Best explanation: Ligase obtained from Ecoli and T4 DNA ligase is used in recombinant DNA technology. |
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| 188. |
Dolly, the first animal produced by cloning is a __________(a) Cow(b) Sheep(c) Rat(d) Dog |
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Answer» Right option is (b) Sheep Explanation: Dolly is a female domestic sheep that was cloned using nuclear transfer process from an adult somatic cell. |
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| 189. |
Plasma membrane is permeable to __________(a) ATP(b) Glucose(c) K^+(d) Urea |
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Answer» Correct option is (d) Urea Explanation: Plasma membrane is impermeable to ATP, glucose and K^+. |
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| 190. |
In which of the following glycerophospholipids two phosphatidic acids share single glycerol?(a) Cardiolipin(b) Phosphatidylserine(c) Phosphatidylinositol(d) Phosphatidylcholine |
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Answer» The correct answer is (a) Cardiolipin Explanation: In cardiolipin, two phosphatidic acids share single glycerol. |
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| 191. |
How are expression vectors useful?(a) To produce protein products(b) Used for genomic libraries(c) Used for chromosome synthesis(d) Used for finger printing |
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Answer» Right choice is (a) To produce protein products For explanation: Expression vectors are helpful for the expression of genes. |
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| 192. |
Which of the following glycerophospholipids is not common in inner leaflet (cytoplasmic)?(a) Phosphatidylserine(b) Phosphatidylethanolamine(c) Phosphatidylinositol(d) Phosphatidylcholine |
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Answer» Correct answer is (d) Phosphatidylcholine Explanation: Phosphatidylcholine is common in outer leaflet. |
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| 193. |
Southern blotting technique is used in ____________(a) Monoclonal antibody production(b) In vitro culture(c) Genetic finger printing(d) Polymerase chain reaction |
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Answer» Right option is (c) Genetic finger printing The explanation is: Applications of southern blotting: In RFLP, forensics, diagnosis of HIV, etc. |
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| 194. |
Which of the following is helpful in distinguishing DNA of one individual from another?(a) PCR(b) Reverse transcriptase(c) cDNA(d) RFLP |
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Answer» Right answer is (d) RFLP Best explanation: Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) is helpful in distinguishing one individual from another. |
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| 195. |
Where does a restriction endonuclease cuts DNA?(a) Ligation site(b) Recognition sequence(c) Ori(d) Replication site |
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Answer» The correct choice is (b) Recognition sequence Explanation: Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific sites called recognition sites. |
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| 196. |
Identify the wrong statement.(a) Hemoglobin is a globular protein(b) Hemoglobin is a fibrous protein(c) Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water(d) Collagen is a fibrous protein |
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Answer» Correct answer is (b) Hemoglobin is a fibrous protein Explanation: Hemoglobin is a globular protein and collagen is a fibrous protein. |
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| 197. |
Which of the following cannot denature a protein?(a) Iodoacetic acid(b) SDS detergent(c) Urea(d) Heating to 90°C |
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Answer» The correct option is (a) Iodoacetic acid The explanation is: Iodoacetic acid, an alkylating agent cannot denature the protein. |
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| 198. |
What are the following is not a factor responsible for the denaturation of proteins?(a) pH change(b) Organic solvents(c) Heat(d) Charge |
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Answer» Right choice is (d) Charge To explain I would say: pH change, organic solvents and heat are the factors responsible for the denaturation of proteins. |
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| 199. |
1M NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is ____________(a) Not a buffer solution with pH < 7(b) Not a buffer solution with pH > 7(c) A buffer solution with pH < 7(d) A buffer solution with pH > 7 |
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Answer» The correct option is (a) Not a buffer solution with pH < 7 Easy explanation: It is a neutral solution and its pH = 7. |
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| 200. |
The buffer capacity is equal to __________(a) Δn / ΔpH(b) pH / Δn(c) ± 1pKa(d) ± 2pKa |
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Answer» Correct answer is (a) Δn / ΔpH Easiest explanation: Buffer capacity = number of moles of acid or base added to 1 liter of buffer/change in pH. |
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