Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Describe the merger of Junagarh State in India.

Answer»

Those states which did not merge in India till 15 August 1947, among them Junagarh was also included. At the time of independence, the Nawab of Junagarh was Mohbat Khan, while more percentage was of non-Muslim in the population. Shah Nawaz Bhutto became the Diwan of Junagarh in 1947 who was the leader of Muslim League and relative of Mohammad Ali Jinnah.

On the consent of Diwan, Nawab declared to merge his state in Pakistan. On 13 September, Pakistan accepted the merger of Junagarh in it. In fact Pakistan wanted to use Junagarh’s merger in Pakistan against the issue of Jammu-Kashmir. This event made Patel aggressive. He sent a regiment of army to merge two states of Junagarh. On the other hand, a large movement started against Nawab in Junagarh. By this time Nawab fled away to Pakistan. After some time Shah Nawaz, Diwan of Junagarh was compelled to hand over the administration of Junagarh to India. In February 1948, a referendum was held, which was largely in favour of India. It resulted in the merger of Junagarh in India.

2.

Write a note on the problems of Reorganisation of States and demarcation of boundaries in independent India and its solution.

Answer»

Soon after independence of India, the Indian Federation formed was not unitary in principles. As a result of integration of the British states and the princely states, the four categories of states were created i.e. A, B, C and D. The states so formed were different from the point of view of population, size, financial resources and administrative convenience. In fact, in common principle was adopted to categorise them. It was in 1920 that the Congress had raised the issue of reorganisation of administrative units on linguistic basis.

After independence, the issue again arose to reorganise the states on the linguistic basis. Keeping this in view the Indian government set up a Commission under the chairmanship of Justice S.K. Das in 1948. The report was submitted on 10th October, 1948 suggesting therein that the state should be reorganised on the basis of administrative convenience rather than the linguistic basis. This report faced a great opposition in India. In December 1946, the government appointed another Commission of Sardar Patel and Pattabhi Sitaramayya under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru. This Commission too did not accept the demand for reorganisation of states on the linguistic basis.

It was in October, 1953 that Telugu- speaking Andhra Pradesh had to be separated from Madras under the compelling circumstances caused due to the death of freedom fighter P. Shriramulu who had observed fast unto death to get his demand fulfilled. Thus, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu were formed for the Telugu speaking and the Tamil speaking people respectively.

In December 1953, the New States Reorganisation Commission was appointed. On the basis of its report, in 1954 linguistic principle for reorganisation of states but * not in all the cases was accepted. The Government of India passed States Reorganisation Act in 1956, creating 14 states and 6 centrally administered units. Riots broke out in Bombay for getting Marathi-speaking state of Maharashtra. Fifty people died in the police firing. Finally, the states of Maharashtra for the Marathispeaking and Gujarat for the Gujarati-speaking had to be formed in 1960. Similar demand was raised in Punjab and consequently the states of Haryana and Himachal Pradesh were reorganised for the Hindi-speaking and Punjab for the Punjabi-speaking people. In 1972, some tribal areas of Assam were separated and states of Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura, were formed. After some time. Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram were formed. All these states including Assam in North-East are known as Seven Sisters. In 1975, Sikkim was included in the Indian Republic.

The demand to reorganise states on the linguistic basis, however, could not be suppressed. In 2000, three states of Jharkhand, Uttaranchal (Uttarakhand) and Chhattisgarh were formed. At present, India consists of 29 states and 7 union territories. 

Thus, the states have been reorganised and their boundaries have been demarcated on different basis but language has remained the main motivating factor.

3.

The people of Junagarh voted overwhelmingly in favour of accession to India in (a) January, 1948 (b) February, 1948 (c) March, 1948 (d) February, 1949

Answer»

(a) January, 1948

4.

At the time of independence the number of princely states was (a) 560 (b) 562 (c) 592 (d) 596

Answer»

Correct Answer is : (b) 562

5.

Who was the Hindu ruler of the state of Kashmir at the time of merger of princely states with the Indian federation? (a) Maharaja Hari Singh (b) Maharaja Kunwar Singh (c) Maharaja Vijay Singh (d) Maharaja Man Singh

Answer»

(a) Maharaja Hari Singh

6.

Discuss about the merger of Bhopal and Rajput states with India.

Answer»

Merge of Bhopal: The Nawab of Bhopal did not like to merge his state into Indian union. After the declaration of Cripp’s Mission, he tried to influence other Hindu and Muslim rulers. This event made the Maharaja of Bikaner and Patiala aggressive. Jinnah and other officials of Nawab were supporting these rulers to merge with Pakistan. But finally, with the efforts of Sardar Patel, Bhopal was merged with India.

Merger of Rajput states with India: In Rajasthan, maharaja of Jodhpur and Udaipur wanted to merge their states with India, but Nizam of Hyderabad and Bhopal were creating some problems. Jinnah and the British officials were trying to influence the Nawab of Bhopal. The Nawab of Bhopal could merge into Pakistan only when the Maharaja of Udaipur was ready to support the Nawab of Bhopal. However, the Maharana of Udaipur denied and merged with India. People of of Jodhpur and Jaisalmer wanted to merge with India. But, the ruler of Jodhpur with the support of Jinnah and other Muslim leaders was interested to merge with Pakistan and also wanted Jaisalmer to go along with him.

But, due to Sardar Patel and V.P. Menon’s diplomatic policy, Jinnah could not get success. Finally, these rulers agreed for a merger with India. During all this process, the state to Travancore declared to be independent. But, some leaders of the Congress raised in agitation. The ruler signed the documents of the merger. Therefore, the successful merger of Bhopal and all the Rajput states with India has a great importance in history.

7.

Pondicherry was the colony of which European country?

Answer»

Pondicherry was the colony of France.

8.

The freedom fighter who observed fast unto death to get the state of Andhra Pradesh, was (a) Sardar. Bhagat Singh (b) P. Shriramulu (c) P. Venakaitayya (d) R.S. Shankaracharya

Answer»

(b) P. Shriramulu

9.

When was the Goa National Committee established?

Answer»

The Goa National Committee was established in 1953.

10.

What is something special about ‘Goa’ regarding the Portuguese imperialism?

Answer»

Portuguese colonisation of Goa was the first incident of the European imperialism in Asia and it was the last European country to leave India. Portugual had won Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510. Later in 1546 Diu and in 1559, Daman were annexed with Goa. Dadra and Nagar Haveli also came under Portugal. All these were collectively known as Goa, the Portuguese colony.

11.

Explain the conditions of merger of Goa in India.

Answer»

Portuguese were not giving attention on the demand of merger of Goa in India. They wanted to keep Goa under them till it possible. The Portuguese Dictator Olevira Salazar denied to vaccate Goa considered it the symbol of light of West. Beside Goa, Daman, Diu, Dadar and Nagar Haveli were also under Portugal. Efforts to liberate Goa were made at the diplomatic level but with no results. Then under the Goa National Committee, Satyagraha was observed on 18th June, 1954 and the National flag was hoisted. Inspite of suppressive measures by the Portuguese administration, Dadra and Nagar Haveli were occupied on 22nd July, 1954 with the efforts of Goa Peoples Party and Independent Goa.

On 15th August, 1955 Goa movement took a dramatic turn. The Indian Government started Operation Vijay to liberate Goa, Daman and Diu in 1961 under General J.N. Chaudhary. On 19th December, 1961 Portuguese rulers surrendered at 2.25 P.M. and the Indian flag was hoisted in Goa Daman and Diu.

12.

What was the main aim of the Goa National Committee?

Answer»

The Goa National Committee was established in 1953. Its main aim was to coordinate all the activities of national parties of Goa for the merger of Goa into India and to make the Indian government stronger.

13.

Which is not the Hindi-speaking state of India? (a) Haryana (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Punjab (d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer»

Correct Answer is : (c) Punjab

14.

Which three princely states did not agree to the accession pact up to 15th August, 1947?

Answer»

(a) Junagarh 

(b) Hyderabad, and 

(c) Kashmir.

15.

For the liberation of Goa, the government of India started the (a) Operation Vijay (b) Operation Thunder (c) Operation Black (d) Operation Blue

Answer»

(a) Operation Vijay

16.

What are the two crucial events in anaerobic respiration? Where does these take place?

Answer»

The two important events in the aerobic respiration are: 

(i) The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms with the release of three molecules of carbon dioxide of three molecules of carbon dioxide. 

(ii) The passing on of the electrons removed as part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular O2 along with the synthesis of ATP. 

The first step takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria while the second step occurs in the inner membrane of mitochondria.

17.

(i) When and where does anaerobic respiration occur in man and yeast? (ii) Why is less energy produced during anaerobic respiration than in aerobic respiration? (iii) Where is the respiratory electrons transport system located in a cell? (iv) What compound is the terminal electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?

Answer»

(i) In man, it occurs during the heavy exercise in the muscles. In yeast, the anaerobic respiration occurs in fermentation. 

(ii) It is because of the following: 

(a) the end products of anaerobic respiration can be further oxidised to release energy, 

(b) the regeneration of NAD does not yield ATP, as the electrons are not transported to oxygen. 

(iii) In the membranes of mitochondria. 

(iv) Oxygen.

18.

Write two differences between anaerobic respiration and fermentation.

Answer»
S. No.Anaerobic RespirationFermentation
(i)It uses oxygen for breaking the respiratory material into simple substances.Oxygen is not used in the breakdown of respiratory substrate
(ii)Respiratory material is completely oxidised to CO2 and H2O.Respiratory material incompletely broken.
19.

Explain the role of oxygen, F0 – F1 particles and NADH in oxidative phosphorylation.

Answer»

Role of oxygen: Oxygen drives the whole process by removing the hydrogen from the system. It acts as the final acceptor of hydrogen. 

(i) Role of F0 - F1 particles: The F headpiece is a peripheral membrane protein complex and contains the site for synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. 

(ii) F0 is an integral membrane protein complex that forms the channel through which proteins cross the inner membrane. 

(iii) Role of NADH: When NADH is oxidised to NAD in the electron transport system, the energy released by the proton is used to phosphorylate ADP into ATP.

20.

List the three reasons as to why plants can get along without respiratory organs.

Answer»

(i) Each plant part takes care of its own gas-exchange needs and there is very little transport of gases from one plant to another. 

(ii) Plants respire at rates lower than that of animals. 

(iii) The distance that gases must diffuse even in large bulky plants is not great. Almost all living cells in a plant have their surfaces exposed to air.

21.

Name the tissue which contains Haversian canals.

Answer»

Mammalian bone.

22.

(i) What term is given to the process in yeast where incomplete oxidation of glucose takes place under anaerobic condition? (ii) In which cycle does the complete oxidation of pyruvate takes place. (iii) Explain why the synthesis of ATP through ETS is called oxidative phosphorylation?

Answer»

(i) Fermentation 

(ii) Kreb's cycle 

(iii) During oxidation a considerable amount of energy is released in graded sequence. The energy so released is utilized by F1 particle for the synthesis of ATP molecule from ADP. The synthesis of ATP during oxidation of coenzymes is called oxidative phosphorylation. The F1 particles contain 3 coupling factors and ATPase enzyme for the synthesis of ATP. 

Oxidation of one molecule of reduced coenzyme (NADH2) results in the formation of 3 ATP molecules while oxidation of FADH2 leads to the synthesis of 2 ATP molecules.

23.

Population interactions may be beneficial or not. Write any three interactions in detail.

Answer»

(a) Mutualism- in this both partners are benefitted eg lichen (+,+)

Commensalism- In this one partner is benefitted other partner is neither benefitted nor harmed (-, +) 

Competition- In this both partners have detrimental effect or negative effect (-, -)

24.

Highlight the differences and a similarity between the following population interactions: competition, predation and commensalism.

Answer»
CompetitionPredationCommensalism
1. In this type of interaction boththe species suffer.

 
1. In this type of interaction the predator kills and consumes the prey1. In this type of interaction one species is benefited and the other is neither harmed nor benefited.
 
2. It occurs due to limited resources between closely related species.2. It is the nature’s way of transferring energy to higher trophic level.2. It is not particularly for any gain of energy or resources.


 
3. For e.g., In American lakes visiting flamingos and resident fish.3. For e.g., tiger (predator) and deer (prey).
 
3. For e.g., sucker fish andshark.


 

Similarity: All these interactions leads to evolution as the fittest organism survives.

25.

Population interactions:CaseSpecies xSpecies ySpecies z1++020-+3-+-Where’+’ beneficial interaction detrimental interaction ‘0’ neutral interaction.Observe the interactions of populations of 3 species as shown in the table. Name the interactions (a) Species x and species y in case 1.(b) Species y and species z in case 2.(c) Species x and species z in case 3.(d) Species y and species z in case 1

Answer»

(a) Mutualism 

(b) Predation/Parasitism 

(c) Competition 

(d) Commensalism

26.

What happens if type A blood is injected to a person having B blood group? Explain the reason.

Answer»

When two different incompatible blood types are mixed, agglutination (clumping together) of erythrocytes (RBC) occurs. The basis of these chemical differences is due to the presence of antigens (surface antigens) on the membrane of RBC and epithelial cells.

27.

Which blood group doesnot possess antibodies? (a) IA IB (b) IO IO (c) IAO (d) IB IB 

Answer»

Correct Answer is: (a) IA IB

28.

Highlight the differences between the population interactions given below. Given an example of each.a. Parasitism b. Amensalism c. Mutualism

Answer»
ParasitismAmensalismMutualism
1. In this interaction one species (parasite) depends on the other species (host) for food and shelter.1. In this interaction one species is harmed and the other is neither benefited nor harmed.


 
1. In this interaction both the interacting species are benefited.




 
2. The interacting species coevolve.2. No evolution is observ
 
2. The interacting species coevolve.
3. For e.g., Cuscuta is commonly found growing on hedge plants.


 
3. For e.g., the mould Penicillium secretes penicillin which kills bacteria but the mould is unaffected.
 
3. For e.g., Rhizobium and the legume plants.




 
29.

Write the possible genotypes for a person having B-blood group.

Answer»

The possible genotypes of a B-blood group person are IBIB or IBI°.

30.

Answer the following questions: A. State and explain the law of dominance as proposed by Mendel.B. How would phenotypes of monohybrid F1 and F2 progeny showing incomplete dominance in Snapdragon and co-dominance in human blood group be different from Mendelian monohybrid F1 and F2 progeny ? Explain.

Answer»

A. This law states that when two alternative forms of a trait or character (genes or alleles) are present in an organism, only one factor expresses itself in F1 progeny and is called dominant while the other that remains masked is called recessive. The characters are controlled by discrete units called factors. These factors occur in pairs.

B. 

Mendelian monohybrid crossIncomplete dominanceCo-dominance
F1All members resemble the parent with dominant trait.All members do not resemble either of the two parents but show an intermediate trait.Blood groups of all members resemble combination of dominant traits of both the parents
F2Both the parental traits reappear.Both the parental traits and an intermediate trait appear.Both the parental traits as well as the co-dominant trait appear.

31.

Which cross is the example of deviation from first rule of inheritance proposed by Mendel? Explain with example.

Answer»

Incomplete dominance, In Snapdragon plant, Punnett square showing cross, phenotype and genotype.

32.

Law of segregation is also called law of(a) probability(b) purity of gametes(c) independence of gametes(d) Punnett hypothesis

Answer»

(b) purity of gametes

33.

In an accident there is great loss of blood and there is no time to analyse the blood group which blood can be safely transferred? (a) ‘O’ and Rh negative (b) ‘O’ and Rh positive (c) ‘B’ and Rh negative (d) ‘AB’ and Rh positive

Answer»

(a) ‘O’ and Rh negative

34.

Prepare a pamphlet to aware people to maintain a hygienic surrounding.

Answer»

“Prevention is better than cure”. So, it is better for us to prevent diseases rather than treatment. You should keep our surroundings clean and hygienic wash your hands with soap or hand wash lotion thoroughly before consuming food. Wash your hands with soap after defecation. You should consume your food only when it is hot. Do exercises daily to keep you fit and healthy. Try to cultivate good habits which keep you healthy always. Use mosquito nets to avoid mosquito bites.

“SWACH BHARAT – SWASTH BHARAT”.

35.

Rewrite the sentence after filling the blank:For eradication of tuberculosis everybody should be vaccinated by …………. vaccine.

Answer»

For eradication of tuberculosis everybody j should be vaccinated by B.C.G vaccine.

36.

XO type of sex determination and XY type of sex determination are examples of _________ (a) Male heterogamety (b) Female heterogamety (c) Male homogamety (d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer»

(a) Male heterogamety

37.

You are aware of Polio Eradication Programme in your city. Children are vaccinated because:A. Vaccination kills the polio causing microorganismsB. Prevents the entry of polio-causing organismC. It creates immunity in the bodyD. All the above

Answer»

Vaccination against polio produces antibodies and as such the body becomes immune against further infections.

38.

Based on Lyon’s hypothesis, mention the number of Barr bodies in XXY males, XO females.

Answer»

1. XXY males – One Barr body. 

2. XO females – No Barr body.

39.

What result did Mendel obtained after monohybrid cross between tall and dwarf pea plant?(A) All new plants were dwarf.(B) All new plants were tall.(C) 50% plants were dwarf and 50% plants were tall.(D) 75% plants were tall and 25% plants were dwarf.

Answer»

Correct answer is

(B) All new plants were tall.

40.

F3 generation was obtained by(A) selfing F1 hybrids(B) selfing F2 hybrids(C) crossing F1 with either parent(D) none of these

Answer»

Correct answer is

(B) selfing F2 hybrids

41.

When Mendel allowed natural selfing of F1 hybrids during monohybrid cross between pure tall and pure dwarf pea plant, he found(A) all plants were tall.(B) all plants were dwarf.(C) dwarfness reappeared in some plants.(D) tallness reappeared in some plants.

Answer»

Correct answer is

(C) dwarfness reappeared in some plants.

42.

The species of different geographical regions are called 1. Neopatric 2. Sympatric 3. Alopatric 4. Sibling

Answer»

The species of different geographical regions are called alopatric.

43.

Give the names of subunits of species.

Answer»

Demes, Race & Sibling

44.

Explain concept of species.

Answer»

According to modern concept, species is a group of genetically similar animals that interbreeds to produce fertile offspring. It is a fundamental and smallest unit of classification, but is can be divided into demes, race, sibling etc.

45.

Which type of animals are selected by nature in “Natural selection” 1. Most adapted 2. Weak 3. Wild species 4. Normal

Answer»

Most adapted type of animals are selected by nature in “Natural selection”.

46.

What is albuminuria? What are its causes?

Answer»
  • Albuminuria is the presence of excess albumin in the urine. 
  • Causes: Injury to the endothelial capsular membrane as a result of increased blood pressure, injury or irritation of kidney cells by substances such as toxins or heavy metals.
47.

When does a patient need to undergo haemodialysis? Explain the process in detail.

Answer»

1. When renal function of a person falls below 5 – 7 %, accumulation of harmful substances in blood begins. In such a condition, the person has to go for artificial means of filtration of blood i.e. haemodialysis. 

2. In haemodialysis, a dialysis machine is used to filter blood. The blood is filtered outside the body using a dialysis unit. 

3. In this procedure, the patients’ blood is removed; generally from the radial artery and passed through a cellophane tube that acts as a semipermeable membrane. 

4. The tube is immersed in a fluid called dialysate which is isosmotic to normal blood plasma. Hence, only excess salts if present in plasma pass through the cellophane tube into the dialysate. 

5. Waste substances being absent in the dialysate, move from blood into the dialyzing fluid. 

6. Filtered blood is returned to vein. 

7. In this process it is essential that anticoagulant like heparin is added to the blood while it passing through the tube and before resending it into the circulation, adequate amount of antiheparin is mixed. 

8. Also, the blood has to move slowly through the tube and hence the process is slow.

48.

A patient report indicates presence of excessive quantities of ketone bodies in the urine. What does this indicate? How is it caused?

Answer»

Presence of excessive quantities of ketone bodies in the urine indicates that the patient is suffering from diabetes mellitus, starvation or too little carbohydrates in the diet.

49.

What does Pratipad mean?

Answer»

Pratipad means the ‘way’ that leads to the end of suffering.

50.

Gautam Buddha created a sangha of bhikkhus to ______ his religion. (a) stretch (b) reach (c) preach

Answer»

Correct option is: (c) preach