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11751.

National emergency can be declared by the President only I. on grounds of war II. on grounds of external aggression III. on grounds of internal disturbance IV. on the written recommendation of the Union Cabinet(a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) I, II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV 

Answer»

(d) I, II, III and IV

11752.

While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country, the State Government: (a) cannot legislate (b) can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List (c) can legislate on the subject in the State List (d) is suspended

Answer»

(a) cannot legislate

11753.

The duration of proclamation of Financial Emergency is : (a) at the first instance one month (b) at the first instance two months (c) at the first instance six months (d) at the first instance one year 

Answer»

(b) at the first instance two months

11754.

During financial emergency, the President can: 1. ask the states to reduce the salaries arid allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the State 2. ask the states to reserve money bills passed by the state legislature for his consideration 3. issue directions to states on financial matters 4. issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union (a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV

Answer»

(d) I, II, III and IV

11755.

During a proclamation of emergency due to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State the President can I. assume all powers vested in and exercisable by the Governor II. declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercised by Parliament III. assume certain powers of the High Courts IV. suspend by order any or all Fundamental Rights except those under Articles 20 and 21 (a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II, III and IV (d) II and IV

Answer»

The correct option: (a) I and II

11756.

On the basis of financial crisis Emergency has been declared by the President of India: (a) not even once (b) in 1962 (c) in 1971 (d) in 1991

Answer»

(a) not even once 

11757.

When a financial emergency is proclaimed:(a) repayment of government debts will stop (b) payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed (c) salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced (d) Union Budget will not be presented

Answer»

(b) payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed

11758.

Emergency can be proclaimed: (a) in whole of the country (b) only in that part of country where actual aggression has taken place (c) in any part of the country (d) in the entire country or any part of territory of India

Answer»

(d) in the entire country or any part of territory of India

11759.

The President's rule can be proclaimed in a State:(a) when a bill introduced by the State Government in the State Legislature is defeated (b) if the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State is satisfied that a situation is likely to arise in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution (c) if the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State, or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution (d) when the Governor and the Chief Minister of a State differ on many matters

Answer»

(c) if the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State, or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution

11760.

The phrase Satyameva Jayate is taken from which Upanishad?

Answer»

Mundaka Upanishad

11761.

The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ on the state emblem has been taken from which Upanishad?1. Katha2. Mundaka3. Kena4. Brhadaranyaka  

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Mundaka

The correct answer is Mundaka.

  • The words Satyameva Jayate from Mundaka Upanishad, meaning 'Truth Alone Triumphs', are inscribed below the abacus in Devanagari script.

  • The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka.
    • In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull, and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus.
    • Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra)
    • In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible, the fourth being hidden from view.
    • The wheel appears in relief in the centre of the abacus with a bull on right and a horse on the and the outlines of other wheels on the eme right and left.
    • The bell-shaped lotus has been omitted.
11762.

Define the following terms. (a) Eutrophication (b) Algal Bloom

Answer»

Eutrophication refers to the nutrient enrichment in water bodies leading to lack of oxygen . and will end up in the death of aquatic organisms. 

Algal Bloom is an excess  growth of algae due to abundant excess nutrients imparting distinct color to water.

11763.

My sister was very cruel when she was a child. She used to catch spiders and ______ their legs one by one.A) pull up B) pull away C) pull off D) pull out

Answer»

Correct option is C) pull off

11764.

Write the name of causative agent, infection site, mode of transmission and any two symptoms of Chikungunya.

Answer»

Causative agent – Alpha virus 

Infection site – Nervous system 

Mode of transmission – Aedes aegypti (Mosquito) 

Symptoms – Fever, headache, joint pain and swelling.

11765.

Classify the diseases given below based on the mode of transmission.1. SAARS, 2. Chikungunya, 3. AIDS, 4. Gonorrhoea, 5. Malaria, 6. Dengue, 7. Syphilis, 8. Chickenpox, 9. Tuberculosis

Answer»
Through airThrough sexual contactThrough Mosquitoes
1. SAARS1. Syphilis1. Dengue fever
2. Chickenpox2. Gonorrhoea2. Malaria
3. Tuberculosis3. AIDS3. Chikungunya
11766.

Analyse the statements related to the spread of AIDS and classify them suitably.a) Through mosquitoes & houseflies. b) Through body fluids. c) Through extramarital sexual contact. d) By touch, shaking hands, coughing etc. e) From HIV infected mother to foetus. f) When you sit near an HIV infected friend in the school.Situations where HIV spreadsSituations where HIV spreads dose not  spread........................................................................................

Answer»
Situations where  HIV spreadsSituations where  HIV does not
b) Through body fluids.a) Through mosquitoes & houseflies.
c) Through extramarital sexual contact.d) By touch, shaking hands, coughing etc.
e) From HIV infected mother to foetus.f) When you sit near an HIV infected friend in the school.
11767.

In order to get feedback about its recently launched immunity boosting ayurvedic medicine, Atulya limited conducted an online survey using a questionnaire, to gather customer views and opinions. Identify the marketing function being used by Atulya Limited: (a) Standardisation (b) Product Designing (c) Customer support service (d) Gathering and analyzing market information

Answer»

(d) Gathering and analyzing market information

11768.

Read this newspaper cutting “AIDS-affected children were denied admission in School” What is your opinion about the decision of the school authorities?Is AIDS a communicable disease?

Answer»

The decision taken by the school authority to refuse admission for AIDS-affected children is totally wrong. 

This is because AIDS is not a communicable disease.

Therefore AIDS vims will not be transferred through touching or sharing food, water, air etc.

11769.

If an Indian citizen is denied a public office because of his religion, which of the following Fundamental Rights is denied to him?(a) Right to Freedom (b) Right to Equality (c) Right to Freedom of Religion (d) Right against Exploitation 

Answer»

(b) Right to Equality

11770.

Which of the following is a cationic detergent ? (1) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate (2) Sodium lauryl sulphate (3) Sodium stearate (4) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide 

Answer»

(4) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide 

C19 H42 N+Br (cationic detergent) 

11771.

From which part of plant is turmeric, a commonly used colourant and antiseptic obtained?1. Root2. Stem3. Fruit4. Flower

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Stem

The correct answer is Stem.

  • Turmeric is obtained from the Stem of the plant.
  • Turmeric is obtained from the plant Curcuma longa which is a perennial herbaceous plant.
  • Turmeric powder is obtained from the underground stem called the dried rhizome of the plant.
  • Turmeric is used in Asian dishes and it also has medicinal value. 
  • Natural products from this plant also have analgesic, antibacterial, antifungal, anti-inflammatory, antioxidant, and digestive properties.

  • The scientific name of Turmeric is Curcuma longa.
  • Telangana is the largest producer of turmeric in the country.
  • Some important varieties of Turmeric are - Suguna, Sudarsana, IISR Prabha, etc.
11772.

For which among the following reactions change in entrophy is less than zero ?A. sublimation of iodineB. dissociation of hydrogenC. formation of waterD. thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate

Answer» Correct Answer - b
For a non spontaneous process change in entropy is less than zero here dissociation of hydrogen is a non spontaneous process hence it has entropy process hence it has entropy lesser than zero
11773.

Find the synonymRubbish A) scrap B) crump C) stone D) litter

Answer»

Correct option is D) litter

11774.

Which one of the following scrap metal cannot be separated by magnetic separation ?A. HaematiteB. MalachiteC. MagnetiteD. Siderite

Answer» Correct Answer - B
Malachite is not a magnetic ore. It is `CuCO_(3)*Cu(OH)_(2)`
11775.

ClF3 exists but FCl3 does not. Why ?

Answer»

[Hint : Because F does not show oxidation state other than -1.]

11776.

What do you mean by significant figures?

Answer»

Significant figures are the digits of a number that are meaningful in terms of accuracy or precision.

Every scientific measurement involves some degree of uncertainty. In order to report a measurement correctly and precisely, the scientists use the concept of significant figures. The significant figures are defined as the total number of certain digits plus one doubtful digit in a number expressing a measurement. For illustration of this term, let us suppose that we want to measure the mass of an object with the help of an analytical balance. Let us further suppose that the measured mass of the object comes out to be 30.1296 g. Now, the analytical balance can record the mass of the object to a sensitivity of 0.0001 g. Thus, all the figures reported are significant. The reported value (30.1296 g) has six significant. figures. Though the last figure has some uncertainty but even then it is significant. Because this implies that the true mass of the object lies closer to 30.1296 g than to 30.1295 g or 30.1297 g. This is the most precise value of the mass measured with analytical balance.

11777.

Tribasic acid is– (a) H3PO4(b) H3PO3(c) H3PO3(d) HPO3 

Answer»

Tribasic acid is H3PO4

11778.

(I) What is dipole moment? (II) Describe Fajan’s rule?

Answer»

(I) 

1. The polarity of a covalent bond can be measured in terms of dipole moment which is defined as: m = q × 2d, where m is the dipole moment, q is the charge, 2d is the distance between the two charges. 

2. The dipole moment is a vector quantity and the direction of the dipole moment points from the negative charge to positive charge. 

3. The unit of dipole moment is Coulomb metre (C m). It is usually expressed in Debye unit (D). 

4. 1 Debye = 3.336 × 10-30 C m

(II)

1. The ability of a cation to polarise an anion is called its polarising ability and the tendency of ah anion to get polarised is called its polarisibility. The extent of polarisation in an ionic compound is given by the Fajans rule. 

2. To show greater covalent character, both the cation and anion should have high charge on them. Higher the positive charge on the cation greater will be the attraction on the electron cloud of the anion. Similarly higher the magnitude of negative charge on anion, greater is its polarisability. 

For example, Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+,

the covalent character also follows the order: 

NaCl < MgCl2< AlCl3.

3. The smaller cation and larger anion show greater covalent character due to the greater extent of polarisation, e.g., LiCl is more covalent than NaCl.

4. Cation having ns2 np6 nd0 configuration shows greater polarising power than the cations with ns2 np 6configuration, e.g., CuCl is more covalent than NaCl.

11779.

Write the reaction of PCl5 with heavy water.

Answer»

[Hint : PCl5 + D2O => POCl3 + 2DCl]

11780.

Write disproportionation reaction of H3PO3 ?

Answer»

[Hint : 4H3PO3 => 3H3PO4 + PH3]

11781.

Valence shell electron pair repulsion theory (VSEPR) provides a method for predicting the shape of molecules, based on the electron pair electrostatic repulsion.According to VSEPR model, molecules adopt geometries in which their valence electron pairs position themselves as far from each other as possible.The VSEPR model consider double and triple bonds to have slightly greater repulsive effects than single bonds because of the repulsive effect of `pi` electrons.how ever, the lone pair creates the maximum repulsive effect. Which of the following does not represent the isostructural pair ?A. `SF_5^-` and `IF_5`B. `CIO_2F_3` and `SOF_4`C. `SeF_3^-` and `XeO_3`D. None

Answer» Correct Answer - D
(A)both square pyramidal having `sp^3d^2` hybridisation , (B)both trigonal bipyramidal having `sp^3d` hybridisation, (C )both trigonal pyramidal having `sp^3` hybridsation.
11782.

How many P - O - P bonds are there in (i) H4P2O7 (ii) P4O10 ?

Answer»

[Hint :   (i) H4P2O7 = 01 (ii) P4O10 = 05]

11783.

The main group elements i.e. representative elements complete their electron configuration using s and p electrons in the periodic table. These elements range from the most metallic to the most non-metallic with intermediate properties, the semi-metals, in between .The elements which occur at the two extremes of the periodic table are highly reactive and therefore, these highly reactive elements do not occur in free state : they usually occur in the combined forms. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar, but, the two elements differ in :A. Forming covalent halidesB. Forming polymeric hydridesC. Exhibiting maximum covalency in compoundsD. Exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides

Answer» Correct Answer - C
Beryllium has the maximum vallency +2 while aluminium exhibits its valency as +3.
11784.

The main group elements i.e. representative elements complete their electron configuration using s and p electrons in the periodic table. These elements range from the most metallic to the most non-metallic with intermediate properties, the semi-metals, in between .The elements which occur at the two extremes of the periodic table are highly reactive and therefore, these highly reactive elements do not occur in free state : they usually occur in the combined forms. Select the correct statement (this is with respect to the elements of main group).A. Chemical reactivity of the elements is generally lowest in the centre of a periodB. Oxides of the elements in the centre of period in general are amphoteric or neutralC. Metallic character increases with increasing atomic number in a group where as decreases from left to right in a periodD. All of these

Answer» Correct Answer - D
(A)Have intermediate values of ionisation energy and electron affinity.
(B)Generally the elements found in the centre of period for main group elements are metalloids.They generally form amphoteric oxides.
(C )Down the group size of atom increases and electropositive character increase.So metallic character increases. Across the period , size of atom decreases and electropositive character decreases.So metallic character decreases and non-metallic character increases.
11785.

The number of interhalogens from the following having square pyramidal structure is :ClF3, IF7, BrF5, BrF3, I2Cl6, IF5, ClF, ClF5

Answer»

Correct answer is 3

Square pyramidal structures are

BrF5, IF5 and ClF5.

11786.

The bond energies of F2 , Cl2, Br2 and I2 are 155, 244, 193 and 151 kJ mol–1 respectively. The weakest bond will be in(a) Br2 (b) Cl2 (c) F2 (d) I2

Answer» (d) The lesser the bond energy, the weaker is the bond
11787.

Statement-1:All halogens except `F_2` are more reactive than interhalogens. Statement-2: Bond in the interhalogens (X-Y) is weaker than X-X bond in the halogens.A. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1B. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 are correct but statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1C. Statement-1 is correct, but statement-2 is False.D. Statement-1 is False, but Statement-2 is correct.

Answer» Correct Answer - D
X-Y is polar due to difference in their electronegativities where as X-X bond is non-polar. In X-Y, X is bigger halogen so X-Y bond length is bigger and thus weaker as compared to X-X bond.
11788.

Statement-1:Finely divided iron does not form ferric chloride with hydrochloric acid. Statement-2:Hydrochloric acid produces hydrogen gas with iron.A. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1B. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 are correct but statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1C. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.D. Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

Answer» Correct Answer - A
`Fe+2HCl to FeCl_2 +H_2`
Liberation of hydrogen prevents the formation of ferric chloride.
11789.

Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following diagram Match the following : A. `P rarr a, Q rarr c, R rarr d, S rarr b`B. `P rarr c, Q rarr a, R rarr d, S rarr b`C. `P rarr c, Q rarr d, R rarr b, S rarr aD. `Prarrd,Qrarrb,Rrarra,Srarrc`

Answer» Correct Answer - B
In isochoric process the cureve is parallel to y axis because volume is constant
Isobaric is parallel to x- axis because pressure is constant Along the curve it will be isothermal beacause temperature is constant
So `Prarrc,Qrarra,Rrarrd,Srarrb`
11790.

The ratio of resolving power of an optical microscope for two wavelength `lambda_(1)=4000Å` and `lambda_(2)=6000Å` is:A. `8:27`B. `9:4`C. `3:2`D. `16:81`

Answer» Correct Answer - C
As resolving power of microsope,
`((RP)oo(1))/(lambda_(wavelength))rArr(RP_(1))/(RP_(2))=(lambda_(2))/(lambda_(1))=6000/4000=3/2`
11791.

The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the system?A. 10HZB. 20 HZC. 30HZD. 40HZ

Answer» Correct Answer - B
11792.

A tanker is provided with two pipes X and Y. X can fill it in 20 minutes and Y can empty it in 30 minutes. If X and Y be kept open ultimately from one minute each, then how soon will the tanker be filled?1. 121 minutes2. 110 minutes3. 115 minutes4. 120 minutes

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : 115 minutes

Given:

X can fill the tanker in 20 minutes and Y can empty it in 30 minutes.

Concept:

If a tap can fill a tank in x hours, then the tank filled by the tap in 1 hour = 1/x of the total tank.

Calculation:

Part of the tanker filled in first 2 minutes

⇒ \(\frac{1}{{20}} - \frac{1}{{30}}{\rm{}} = {\rm{}}\frac{{3 - 2}}{{60}}{\rm{}} = {\rm{}}\frac{1}{{60}}\)

Part of tanker filled in 114 minutes

⇒ \(\frac{{57}}{{60}}\)

⇒ \(\frac{{19}}{{20}}\)

Remaining part of tanker will be filled in 115th minutes.

11793.

Has Jimmy got his books now? Yes, my brother ________ yesterday. A) gave them to him B) gave to him them C) has given them to him D) has given to him them

Answer»

Correct option is A) gave them to him

11794.

Three pipes A, B and C can separately fill a tanker in 4, 8 and 12 hours respectively. Another pipe D can empty the completely filled tanker in 10 hours. Which of the following arrangements will fill the empty tanker in less time than other?1. B alone is open.2. A and D are open.3. A, C and D are open.4. A, B and D are open.

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : A, B and D are open.

Given:

Time taken by pipe A to fill the tanker = 4 hrs

Time taken by pipe B to fill the tanker = 8 hrs

Time taken by pipe C to fill the tanker = 12 hrs

Time taken by pipe D to empty the tanker = 10 hrs

Concept:

If a tap can fill a tank in x hours, then the tank filled by the tap in 1 hour = 1/x of the total tank.

Calculation:

Option 1:

Part of the tanker filled in 1 hours when pipes B is open alone

⇒ 1/8

Hence, the tanker will be filled in 8 hours

Option 2:

Part of the tanker filled in 1 hours when pipes A and D are open

⇒ \(\frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{{10}}{\rm{}} = {\rm{}}\frac{{5 \;-\; 2}}{{20}}{\rm{}} = {\rm{}}\frac{3}{{20}}\)

Hence, the tanker will be filled in \(\frac{{20}}{3}\) hours = 6.6 hours

Option 3:

Part of the tanker filled in 1 hours when pipes A, C and D are open

⇒ \(\frac{1}{4}{\rm{}} + {\rm{}}\frac{1}{{12}} - \frac{1}{{10}}\)

⇒ \(\frac{{15{\rm{\;}} + {\rm{\;}}5 - 6}}{{60}}{\rm{}} = {\rm{}}\frac{{14}}{{40}}{\rm{}} = {\rm{}}\frac{7}{{30}}\)

Hence, the tanker will be filled in \(\frac{{30}}{7}\) hours = 4.3 hours

Option D:

Part of the tanker filled in 1 hours when pipes A, B and D are open

⇒ \(\frac{1}{4}{\rm{\;}} + {\rm{\;}}\frac{1}{8} - \frac{1}{{10}}\)

⇒ \(\frac{{10{\rm{\;}} + {\rm{\;}}5 - 4}}{{40}}{\rm{}} = {\rm{}}\frac{{11}}{{40}}\)

Hence, the tanker will be filled in \(\frac{{40}}{{11}}\) hours = 3.6 hours

Tanker can be filled faster when A, B and D are open.

11795.

A pipe can fill a bucket in P hours and another can empty in Q hours. They can together fill it in (Q > P)1. \(\frac{{{\rm{PQ}}}}{{{\rm{Q}} - {\rm{P}}}}\) hours2. P – Q hours3. Q – P hours4. \(\frac{{{\rm{PQ}}}}{{{\rm{P}} - {\rm{Q}}}}\) hours

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : \(\frac{{{\rm{PQ}}}}{{{\rm{Q}} - {\rm{P}}}}\) hours

Given:

A pipe can fill a bucket in P hours and another can empty in Q hours.

Concept:

If a tap can fill a tank in x hours, then the tank filled by the tap in 1 hour = 1/x of the total tank.

Calculation:

When both pipe are opened simultaneously, part of the bucket filled in 1 hours

⇒ \(\frac{1}{{\rm{P}}} - \frac{1}{{\rm{Q}}}{\rm{}} = {\rm{}}\frac{{{\rm{Q}} - {\rm{P}}}}{{{\rm{PQ}}}}\)

Required time is \(\frac{{{\bf{PQ}}}}{{{\bf{Q}} - {\bf{P}}}}\) hours.

11796.

I have 7 candles lit, 2 blew out, how many candles do I have left?

Answer»

The answer of this riddle is 7.

Explanation :-


There are 7 candles lit and if I blew out 2 of them , I still have 7 Candles 5 lit and 2 unlit.

But still there is catch, if those 5 candles are lit longer, they will melt and we will be left with 2 candles.

So, Depending on the time when we count the candles answer would be either 7 or 2.

Since, in the riddle it is not explicitly stated the time, answer is 7.

If 2 candles blew out we are still left with 7 candles out of which 5 are lit and 2 candles that are extinguished.

But still there is catch, if those 5 candles are lit longer, they will melt and we will be left with 2 candles

Depending on when it is counted, we are left with either 7 or 2 candles

11797.

Are the papers in your room? Yes, my mother ________ yesterday. A) put them there B) puts them there C) put it there D) puts it there

Answer»

Correct option is A) put them there

11798.

Two pipes J and K can separately fill a pot in 2 hours and 3 hours respectively. If both the pipes are open simultaneously in the empty pot, then what time pot will take to filled?1. 1 hours 12 minutes2. 2 hours 30 minutes3. 1 hour 15 minutes4. 1 hours 20 minutes

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 1 hours 12 minutes

Given:

Two pipes J and K can separately fill a pot in 2 hours and 3 hours respectively.

Concept:

If a tap can fill a tank in x hours, then the tank filled by the tap in 1 hour = 1/x of the total tank.

Calculation:

Part of the pot filled by pipes J and K in 1 hours

= (1/2) + (1/3)

= (3 + 2)/6

= 5/6 parts

Required time = (6/5) hours

= 1 hours \(\frac{1}{5} \times 60\)

= 1 hour 12 minutes

The pot will take 1 hour 12 minutes to filled.

11799.

Three pipes X, Y, Z can fill an overhead pot in 4, 6 and 12 hours respectively. How long would the three pipes take to fill the pot, if all of them are open together?1. 2 hrs.2. 4 hrs.3. 3 hrs.4. 5 hrs.

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 2 hrs.

Given:

Three pipes X, Y, Z can fill an overhead pot in 4, 6 and 12 hours respectively

Concept:

If a tap can fill a tank in x hours, then the tank filled by the tap in 1 hour = 1/x of the total tank.

Calculation:

Part of the pot filled by all three pipes in an hours

⇒ \(\frac{1}{4}{\rm{}} + {\rm{}}\frac{1}{6}{\rm{}} + {\rm{}}\frac{1}{{12}}{\rm{}} = {\rm{}}\frac{{6{\rm{\;}} + {\rm{\;}}4{\rm{\;}} + {\rm{\;}}2}}{{24}}{\rm{}} = {\rm{}}\frac{1}{2}\)

The pot will be filled in 2 hours.

11800.

______ is an open place in the wall of a room where you can burn wood or coal to heat the room. A) radiator B) fire place C) refrigerator D) ceiling

Answer»

Correct option is B) fire place