Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Fill in the blanks 1. ……… foundation from USA introduced HYV in India. 2. ……………… is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency. 3. In the year ……………… National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament. 4. ……………… play an important role in the supply of quality goods at reasonable rates to common people. 5. ……………… is the value of currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods and services that one unit of money can buy.

Answer»

1. Ford 

2. Underweight 

3. 2013 

4. Consumer co-operatives 

5. Purchasing Power

2.

The nature, scope and functioning of the ……… varies from State to State. (a) FCI (b) PDS (c) IRDP (d) None

Answer»

The nature, scope and functioning of the PDS varies from State to State.

3.

What is meant by Buffer stock?

Answer»

Buffer stock is the stock of food grains namely wheat and rice procured by the Government through the Food Corporation of India.

4.

Elucidate why the Green Revolution was born.

Answer»

1. For a country’s overall development process food security of people is one of the key determining factor. 

2. After independence, even though India focused on Agriculture, industrialization was also given priority. 

3. But the problem of drought experienced in India forced her to be dependent on imports of food grains. 

4. Therefore India had to plead for food grains from richer countries at concessional rates. 

5. United states of America extended assistance through its Public Law 480 to India. This situation was popularly known as ship to mouth existence. 

6. An American Organisation Ford Foundation formulated a plan to increase food production in the country by introducing High Yielding varieties of wheat and rice.

7. When the results was very good in India, the idea of Green Revolution also bom in India.

5.

What is the role of FCl in Green Revolution?

Answer»

The Food Corporation of India helped the State to procure the harvested grains at the beginning of the cropping season. The FCI built huge storage godowns and built buffer stocks of food grain during the harvest season to be distributed throughout the year.

6.

Around 94% of the fair – price shops are run by …… in Tamil Nadu.(a) banks(b) government (c) co-operatives (d) local heads

Answer»

(c) co-operatives

7.

Tamil Nadu Health System Projects has launched ……….. service at free of cost.(a) 106 ambulance (b) 108 ambulance (c) 107 ambulance (d) 105 ambulance

Answer»

(b) 108 ambulance

8.

Write the names of the four poorest states of India.

Answer»

Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttarpradesh and Madhyapradesh are the four states with more number of poor people live.

9.

Buffer stock scheme purpose is ………(a) To save food grains from pest attack (b) To deliver food (c) To stop price fluctuations

Answer»

(c) To stop price fluctuations

10.

What are the effects of Green Revolution?

Answer»

1. It increase the production and cultivation

2. It increase the productivity 

3. Changes in cropping system 

4. Industrial development

11.

Discuss about the Multi-dimentional Poverty Index India and Tamil Nadu.

Answer»

Multi-dimensional Poverty Index 2018 report prepared by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative makes the following observations about India.

India has reduced its poverty rate drastically from 55% to 28% in 10 years, with 271 million people moving out of poverty between 2005-06 and 2015-16.

  • India still had 364 million poor people in 2015-16, the largest for any country, although it is down from 635 million in 2005-06
  • Of the 364 million people who were MPI poor in 2015-16,156 million were children whereas in 2005-06 there were 292 million poor children in India. This represents a 47% decrease or 136 million fewer children growing up in multi-dimensional poverty.
  • 80% of people belonging to ST were poor in 2005-06 and 50% of them were still poor in 2015-16.
  • Bihar with more than half its population in poverty was the poorest state in 2015-16.
  • The four poorest states Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh were still home to 196
  • million MPI poor people, which was over half of all the MPI poor people in India.
  • Kerala, one of the least poor regions in 2006, reduced its MPI by around 92%.

Multi-dimensional Poverty Index 2018 Report in Tamil Nadu:

Over the last decades, Tamil Nadu has made a significant progress in poverty reduction. The districts in Tamil Nadu are classified into three categories, namely high-poverty districts (more than 40% of the population living below poverty line), moderately poor districts (30% to 40%) and low level poverty districts (below 30%).

After 1994, poverty has declined steadily in both rural and urban areas of Tamil Nadu and the state has a smaller share of India’s poor relative to its-population. After 2005, the poverty reduction in this state has been faster than in many other states in India. Tamil Nadu leads in the poverty alleviation programmes during 2014-2017. Government of India is implementing many policies and programmes to eradicate poverty. These policies and programmes, if continued, will completely eradicate the poverty in the state. In future, Tamil Nadu can become a model of development in India.

12.

Briefly explain the nutritional and health status of Tamil Nadu.

Answer»

1. Nutrition plays a crucial role in human health and well being. 

2. Tamil Nadu has played a pioneering role in bringing about significant changes in the health and nutrition status. 

3. Children below six years of age, pregnant women, lactating mothers and adolescent girls are mainly taken care of. 

4. Tamil Nadu’s budget allocation for health and nutrition is the highest in the country.

5. The performance of the Integrated Child Development Services, and the Puratchi Thalaivar MGR Nutritious Meal Programme (PTMGRNMP) are considered one of the best in the country.

6. In Tamil Nadu, ICDs is being implemented through 54,439 child centres, that is 49,499 Anganwadi centres and 4,940 mini Anganwadi centres. 

7. There are 434 Child Development Blocks in which 385 in rural areas, 47 urban areas and 2 in tribal areas. 

8. The Government of Tamil Nadu’s policy for “A Malnutrition free Tamil Nadu” guides the State’s long term Multi – sectoral strategy for eliminating malnutrition,

9. Amartya Sen, Noble prize winning Economist stated that he sees a political will and commitment in the state of Tamil Nadu to tackle these issues to achieve the status of a “Malnutrition” “Free state”.

13.

….. is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS. (a) Kerala (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka

Answer» (c) Tamil Nadu
14.

Write a note on The Chief Minister’s Comprehensive Health Insurance scheme.

Answer»

1. It was launched in 2011 – 12. 

2. Aims to provide free medical and surgical treatment in Government and private hospital to any family whose annual income is less than ? 72,000

3. To reach the goal of Universal Health Care to All.

15.

Write a note a Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Maternity Benefit Scheme.

Answer»

1. Gives financial assistance upto Rs 12,000 to poor pregnant women on nutritious diet in 3 instalments. 

2. This helps to avoid low birth weight of new bom babies. 

3. These women can avail ante – natal care delivering and immunising the baby bom on Government hospitals.

16.

Write short note on multi-dimensional nature of poverty.

Answer»

Multi-dimensional poverty measures can be used to create a more comprehensive picture. They reveal who is poor, how they are poor and the range of disadvantages they experience. As well as providing a headline measure of poverty, multi-dimensional measures can be broken down to reveal the poverty level in different areas of a country, and among different subgroups of people.

17.

Write briefly some of the important objectives of India’s agricultural policy.

Answer»

The New Agricultural Policy was announced by the Government of India in 2018. 

The main objectives of the policy are:

1. Raising the productivity of inputs: Inputs for the growth of crops of such as HYV seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation projects should be improved. 

2. Raising value – added per hectare: The policy aims at increasing the value addition per hectare by raising the productivity in small and marginal holding instead of raising physical output in general. 

3. Protecting the interest of the poor farmers: The policy help the poor and marginal farmers by abolishing intermediaries, extended credit support and land reforms,

4. Modernising Agriculture sector: Introduction of modem technology in agricultural operations and application of improved agricultural inputs like HYV seeds, fertilizers etc. 

5. Environmental Degradation: One of the objective of the agricultural policy is to check the environmental degradation of natural base. 

6. Removing bureaucracy: Bureaucratic obstacles on the farmers co-operative societies and self – help institutions is to be removed so that farmers can work freely.

18.

Write a note on Differential Universal PDS and Targeted PDS.

Answer»

1. Under Universal Public Distribution System all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS. 

2. Under Targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria and given their entitlements, leaving the others. 

3. Tamil Nadu is following Universal PDS.

19.

What are the factors affecting the purchasing power and explain them.

Answer»
  • Over population: The population growth rate in India is high as 1.7 per 1000. Large population leads to increasing demand, but supply was not equal to the demand. So, the normal price level will be going an higher. So it affect purchasing power, especially in rural population.
  • Increasing prices of essential goods: Even though there has been a constant growth in the GDP and growth opportunities in the Indian economy, there have been steady increase in the prices of essential goods. The continuous rise in the prices erodes the purchasing power and adversely affect the poor people. During 2015-16 an average rate of 2% flood inflation, the prices of pulses rose by about 40%.
  • Demand for goods: When demand for goods increases, the price of goods increases then the purchasing power is affected.
  • Price of goods affect the value of currency: When the price increases the purchasing power decreases and finally the value of currency decreases and vice versa.
  • Production and supply of goods: The production and supply of goods decline, the price of goods increases, then the purchasing power is affected.
  • Poverty and inequality: There exists a huge economic disparity in the Indian economy. The proportion of income and assets owned by the top 10% of Indian goes on increasing. This has led to an increase in the poverty level in society. Generally purchasing power is affected by poverty and unequal distribution of wealth also.

Purchasing power affects every aspect of economics, from consumers buying goods to investors and stock prices to a country’s economic prosperity. As such, a country’s government institutes policies and regulations to protect a currency’s purchasing power and keep an economy healthy. One method to monitor purchasing power is through the Consumer Price Index.

20.

Write a short note on purchasing power.

Answer»

Purchasing power is the value of a currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods or services that one unit of money can buy. Price increases purchasing power declines and vice versa.

21.

Explain why Boyle's law cannot be used to determine the volume of a real gas when it is converted from its initial state to final state by an adiabatic expansion.

Answer»

Boyle's law is applied at constant temperature condition only. However, during adiabatic expansion, temperature is decreased. So, this law cannot be used to determine the volume of a real gas in adiabatic expansion.

22.

Assertion (A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa. Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then the purchasing power is affected.(a) A is correct, R is false (b) Both A and R are false statements (c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation (d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A

Answer»

(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A

23.

Boyle's law states that at constant temperature, if pressure is increased on a gas, volume decreases and vice-versa. But when we fill air in a balloon, volume as well as pressure increases, why?

Answer»

Boyle's law is applicable only for a fixed mass of a gas. When we fill air in a balloon, we introduce much air into the balloon so mass of air increases. Thus, this law is not applicable.

24.

What are the characteristic of d-block elements.

Answer»

Characteristic of the d-block elements:

(i) The d-block elements are metals having high melting and boiling points.

(ii) The d-block elements exhibit-transitional behaviours intermediate between highly reactive electropositive alkali metals and the covalent compound forming elements. Therefore, the d-block elements are called trnsition elements.

(iii) These elements have valence electrons both in their outermost and second outermost (penultimate) shells. The valence electrons belonging to the outermost, or both the outermost and penultimate shells may take place in chemical reactions. As a result, d-block elements show variable oxidation states.

(iv) Most of the d-block elements form coloured salts.

(v) The d-block elements, their ions and compounds are generally paramagnetic. This is due to the presence of one or more unpaired electrons present in the atoms or ions of these elements.

(vi) Most of the d-block elements (or transition elements) and their compounds are good catalysts.

25.

What are the characteristic of p-block elements.

Answer»

Characteristics of the p-block elements:

(i) The p-block elements include metals, non-metals and metalloids. That is, certain elements in p-block are metals, some are non-metals while some others are metalloids. In a group, the metallic character increases in going from top to bottom. In a period, the metallic character decreases in going from top to the bottom. In a period, the metallic character decreases in going from left to right.

(ii) The general outer electronic configuration of p-block elements is ns2 np1-6

(iii) The p-block elements enter into chemical combination by losing, gaining or sharing the valence electrons. The noble gas elements do not show any reactivity. This is because the outermost shell in these elements are completely filled (ns2 np6)

(iv) The p-block elements mostly form covalent compounds. The halogens, however, from ionic compounds with alkali and alkaline earth metals.

26.

What are the characteristic of s-block elements

Answer»

Characteristics of s-block elements:

(i) The s-block elements are metals. These metals are soft, and have low melting and boiling points.

(ii) The general outer electronic configuration of the s-block elements is ns1-2

(iii) These elements are highly electropositive. They lose their valence electrons to form monovalent or divalent cation. For example.

M (Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs) → M+ (Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs) + e-

and M (Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba) → M2+ (Mg, Cu, Sr, Ba) + 2e-

(iv) These elements act as strong reducing agents. This is because, these elements are highly electropositive, and lose electrons readily.

(v) The s-block elements mostly form ionic compounds, for example, NaCl, KCl, CaCl2, etc, are typical ionic compounds.

27.

What are the characteristic of f-block elements.

Answer»

Characteristic of the f-block elements:

(i) The f-block elements are metals having high melting and high boiling points.

(ii) These elements exhibit variable oxidation states. The most common oxidation state being 3+.

(iii) These elements form coloured salts. This is because these salts absorb light of certain wavelength from the visible light.

(iv) Actinides (5f-series) are radioactive elements.

28.

How does electronegativity and non – metallic character related to each other?

Answer»

Electronegativity is directly related to the non – metallic character of elements. Electronegativity is inversely related to the metallic properties of elements. Thus the increase in electronegativities across a period is accompanied by an increase in non – metallic properties of elements. Similarly, the decrease in electronegativity down a group is accompanies by a decrease in non – metallic properties of elements.

29.

Oil spillage from oil wells in Nigeria had several impacts on its ecosystem. Write any two such impacts.

Answer»

1. Large tracts of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil have been destroyed. 

2. Spills destroy crops and aquaculture through contamination of the groundwater and soils. 

3. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and a sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water. 

30.

Describe briefly the biological importance of calcium and magnesium.

Answer»

(i). An adult body contains about 25 g of Mg and 1200 g of Ca. The daily requirement in the human body has been estimated to be 200-300 mg. 

(ii). Magnesium is the co-factor of all enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer and energy release.

(iii). The main pigment for the absorption of light in plants is chlorophyll which contains magnesium. 

(iv). About 99% of body calcium is present in bones and teeth.

(v). Calcium plays important roles in neuromuscular function, intemeuronal transmission, cell membrane integrity and blood coagulation. 

(vi). The calcium concentration in plasma is regulated at about 100 mgL-1 . It is maintained by two hormones: calcitonin and parathyroid hormone.

(vi). Deficiency of magnesium results into convulsion and neuromuscular irritation.

(viii). 2% of adult weight is made up of calcium. Calcium phosphate is present in teeth and Calcium carbonate is present in bones. They make the teeth and bone hard.

(ix). Water in the human body such as inside the cell and in the blood contain dissolved calcium ions. These ions are involved in making muscles move and in sending electricity around the brain and along the nerves.

(x). Magnesium is an essential element in both plant and animal life

31.

Where did Reuben keep his savings? Why?

Answer»

Reuben had an ancient barn near his house. He found a rusty baking-soda tin and used to drop his coins inside. Then he climbed into the lost of the barn & hid the can beneath a pile of sweet - smiling hay. He had to hide the saved money like this so that he can collect the amount for buying the surprise gift for his mother.

32.

For ordinary terrestrial experiments, which of the observers below are inertial and which non-inertial:(a) a child revolving in a "giant wheel",(b) a driver in a sports car moving with a constant high speed of 200 kmh-1 on a straight road.(c) the pilot of an aeroplane which is taking off,(d) a cyclist negotiating a sharp turn,(e) the guard of a train which is slowing down to stop at a station?

Answer»

(a) Non-inertial, because the giant wheel has acceleration motion.

(b) Inertial frame, because the speed is uniform in a straight line.

(c) Non-inertial, because the aeroplane accelerates while taking off.

(d) Non-inertial, because the cyclist has now accelerated motion.

(e) Non-inertial, because the train is retarding.

33.

Explain whyWhen we try to close a water tap with our fingers, fast jets of water gush through the openings between our fingers.

Answer»

When we try to close the water top with our fingers, the area of outlet of water eject gets reduced. Therefore in accordance with the principle of Continuity (AV = constant), the velocity of the water will increase creating fast jets of water.

34.

Explain whyThe size of the needle of a syringe controls flow rate better than the thumb pressure exerted by a doctor while administering an injection.

Answer»

The size of the needle controls the velocity of flow and the thumb pressure controls the pressure. According to Bernoulli’s equation: P + ρgh+ \(\frac{1}{2}\)ρv2 = constant

we can note that the equation varies linearly with pressure, P but varies as the square of the velocity. Hence the contribution of velocity of flow is greater, due to which the needle has a better control over the flow.

35.

Explain why?The size of the middle of a syringe controls flow rate better than the thumb pressure exerted by a doctor while administering an injection

Answer»

Here, size of the needle controls velocity of flow and thumb pressure controls pressure. According to Bernoulli's theorem.

ρ + ρgh + 1/2ρv2 = a constant, shows that ρ occurs with powers one and v occurs with power two, hence the velocity has more influence. That is why needle has a better control over flow.

36.

You can squirt water a considerably greater distance by placing your thumb over the end of a garden hose. Explain.

Answer»

Placing one’s thumb over the end of a garden hose constricts the open end. By the continuity condition, the speed of water increases as it passes through the constriction. Hence, water squirts out and reaches a longer distance.

37.

The focal length of a concave mirror in the experiment set up shown below equals toA) 4 cm B) 8 cm C) 1.2 cm D) 5 cm

Answer»

Correct option is C) 1.2 cm
 

38.

The surface tension of a liquid is T. What would be the increase in its energy when area of the surface is increased by A?

Answer»

Increase in its energy is T A.

39.

Find an expression for equivalent relative density when (i) two substances of relative density ρ1 and ρ2 are mixed by equal mass, (ii) two substances of relative density ρ1 and ρ2 are mixed by equal volume.

Answer»

(i) When two substances are mixed by equal masses, the volume of one substance + volume of second substance = volume of the mixed substance

or, m/ρ1 + m/ρ2 = 2m/ρ

or, 1/ρ1 + 1/ρ2 = 2/ρ or ρ = {2ρ1ρ2}/{(ρ1 + ρ2)}

(ii) When two substances are mixed by equal volume, the 

Mass of one substances + Mass of second substance

= Mass of mixed substance

or, Vρ1g + Vρ2g = 2Vρg

or, ρ1 + ρ2 = 2ρ

or, ρ = ρ1 + ρ2

where ρ is the equivalent relative density.

40.

What happens when a capillary tube of insufficient length is dipped in a liquid ?

Answer»

When a capillary tube of insufficient length is dipped in a liquid, the radius of curvature of the meniscus increase so that hr = constant. That is pressure on concave side becomes equal to pressure exerted by liquid column so liquid does not overflow.

41.

In which of the following substances, does the surface tension increase with an increase in temperature? (A) Copper (B) Molten copper (C) Iron (D) Molten iron

Answer»

Correct Option is (B) Molten Copper

Generally due to surface tension increase with decrease temprature.

In case of molten copper increase in temperature , soluble impurity will increase . So increase in temperature with increase surface tension.

(B) Molten copper

42.

Does it matter if one uses gauge pressure instead of absolute pressure in applying Bernoulli’s equation ?

Answer»

No. Unless the atmospheric pressures at the two points where Bernoulli’s equation is applied, are significantly different.

43.

An incompressible fluid flows steadily through a cylinder pipe which has 2r at point A and radius r at B further along the flow direction. If the velocity at point A is v, its velocity at point B isA) 2v B) v C) v/2 D) 4v

Answer»

D) 4v 

Explanations: 

At point A, radius is 2r and at point B, radius is r.

Area × velocity = constant

Hence πr 2 × V = constant

i.e. r1 2V1 = r2 2V2

Given r1 = 2r

r2 = r

V1 = V 

V2 =? 

∴ (2r)2 × V = r2 ∙ V2 

∴  V2 = 4V

 V2 means velocity at point B i.e.

 V-B = 4V

44.

What are absolute pressure and gauge pressure?

Answer»

Pressure at a point is given by the relation

P = Pa + hρg

Where, Pa is the atmospheric pressure and hρg is the column pressure. Here, P is the absolute pressure and (P - Pa) is the gauge pressure normally measured.

45.

A fluid flows in steady flow through a pipe.The pipe has a circular cross section, but its radius varies along its length. The mass of the fluid passing per second at the entrance point (radius R) of the pipe is Q1 while that at the exit point (radius R/2) is Q2. Then, Q is equal to(A) \(\frac14\)Q1(B) Q1 (C) 2Q1 (D) 4Q1

Answer»

Correct option is (B) Q1 

46.

If your tyre gauge reads 2.31 atm (234.4 kPa), what is the absolute pressure ?

Answer»

The absolute pressure, p = p0 + pg = 1 atm + 2.31 atm = 3.31 atm (≅ 335 kPa).

47.

What are the functions of pili and fimbriae?

Answer»

Respiratory enzymes are present on the infoldings of the plasma membrane called mesosomes. Respiratory enzymes are present within mitochondria. 

e-g- Cyanobacteria (Blue green algae) and bacteria. Algae, fungi, plants and animals.

48.

Describe the structure of nucleus.

Answer»

Nucleus is known as the master cell organelle as it regulates various metabolic activities through synthesis of various proteins and enzymes. 

The nucleus in eukaryotic cell is made up of nuclear envelope, nucleoplasm, nucleolus and chromatin network. 

1. Nuclear envelope: 

a. Nuclear envelope is a double layered delimiting membrane of nucleus. 

b. Two membranes are separated from each other by perinuclear space (10 to 50nm). 

c. Outer membrane is connected with endoplasmic reticulum at places and harbours ribosomes on it. 

d. The inner membrane is lined by nuclear lamina- a network of protein fibres that helps in maintaining shape of the nucleus. 

e. The two membranes along with perinuclear space help in separating nucleoplasm from cytoplasm. However, nuclear membrane is not continuous. 

f. There are small openings called nucleopores on the nuclear membrane. 

g. The nucleopores are guarded by pore complexes which regulate flow of substances from nucleus to cytoplasm and in reverse direction.

2. Nucleoplasm or karyolymph: 

a. The nucleoplasm or karyolymph contains various substances like nucleic acids, protein molecules, minerals and salts. 

b. It contains chromatin network and nucleolus. 

3. Nucleolus: 

a. Nucleolus is made up of rRNA and ribosomal proteins and it is known as the site of ribosome biogenesis.

b. The rRNA and ribosomal proteins are transported to cytoplasm and are assembled together to form ribosomes.

c. Depending on synthetic activity of a cell, there are one or more nucleoli present in the nucleoplasm. For e.g. cells of oocyte contain large nucleolus whereas sperm cells contain small inconspicuous one. 

d. Nucleolus appear as dense spherical body present near chromatin network.

49.

What are mesosomes?

Answer»

Cytoplasm does not show streaming movement. Cytoplasm shows streaming movement.

50.

Which technique is used to differentiate between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria?

Answer»

The Gram-positive bacteria show presence of peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall and Gram-negative bacteria show presence of murein in the cell wall. The technique used for differentiating bacterial cells is Gram staining. [Note: Murein is similar to peptidoglycan in structure and function. It is present in the cell walls of archaebacteria.