Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

What is the hybridisation state of benzyl carbonium ion? (a) sp2 (b) spd2 (c) sp3(d) sp2d

Answer»

Correct answer is (a) sp2 

2.

Statement-I: Fluoro acetic acid is stronger acid than acetic acid Statement-II: Fluorine has high electronegativity and it is facilitate to dissociate the OH bond easily.(a) Statement-I and II are correct and statement-II is correct explanation of statement-I. (b) Statement-I and II are correct but statement-II is not correct explanation of statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is wrong. (d) Statement-I is wrong but statement-Il is correct

Answer»

(a) Statement-I and II are correct and statement-II is correct explanation of statement-I.

3.

While separating a mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols by steam distillation, name the isomer which will be steam volatile. Give reason. 

Answer»

O-nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding and hence can be separated by steam distillation from pnitrophenol which is not steam volatile because of inter-molecular hydrogen bonding. 

4.

The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than that of the corresponding acids. Why?

Answer»

This is due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding in carboxylic acids.

5.

Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points. Explain by giving reasons.  CH3CHO, CH3CH2OH, CH3OCH3, CH3CH2CH3. 

Answer»

The molecular masses of all these compounds are comparable : 

CH3CHO (44), CH3CH2OH (46), CH3COCH3 (46), CH3CH2CH3 (44). 

CH3CH2OH exists as associated molecule due to extensive intermolecular hydrogen bonding and hence its boiling point is the highest (351 K). Since dipoledipole interaction are stronger in CH3CHO than in CH3OCH3, hence boiling point of CH3CHO (293 K) is much higher than that of CH3OCH3 (249 K). Further, molecules of CH3CH2CH3 have only weak Vander Waals forces while the molecules of CH3OCH3 have little stronger dipole-dipole interactions and hence the boiling point of CH3OCH3 is higher (249 K) than that of CH3CH2CH3 (231 K). 

Thus the overall increasing order of boiling points is : 

CH3CH2CH3 < CH3OCH3 < CH3CHO < CH3CH2

6.

Suggest a reason for the large difference in the boiling points of butanol and butanal, although they have same solubility in water. 

Answer»

The b. pt. of butanol is higher than that of butanal because butanol has strong intermolecular H-bonding while butanal has weak dipole-dipole interaction. However both of them form H-bonds with water and hence are soluble 

7.

Benzophenone can be obtained by ____________.(i) Benzoyl chloride + Benzene + AlCl3(ii) Benzoyl chloride + Diphenyl cadmium(iii) Benzoyl chloride + Phenyl magnesium chloride(iv) Benzene + Carbon monoxide + ZnCl2

Answer»

(i), (ii)

(i) Benzoyl chloride + Benzene + AlCl3

(ii) Benzoyl chloride + Diphenyl cadmium

8.

Why does solubility decreases with increasing molecular mass in carboxytic acid? 

Answer»

Because of increase in alkyl chain length which is hydrophobic in nature. Hence solubility decreases. 

9.

Out of acetophenone and benzophenone, which gives iodoform test? Write the reaction involved. 

Answer»

The compound should have CH3 CO-group to show the iodoform test. Acetophenone (C6H5 COCH3) contains the group CH3 CO attached to carbon and hence given iodoform test while benzophenone does not contain this group and hence does not give iodoform test.

C6H5 COCH3 (Acetophenone) + 3I2 + 4 NaOH  CHI3 + C6 H5 COONa (Iodoform) + 3 NaI + 3 H2

C6 H5 COC6H5 + I2 + NaOH  No reaction

Acetophenone will respond to iodoform test when treeated with I2/NaOH(aq) as it contains keto-methylje group

Reaction

CH3COC6H5+I2+NaOH-> CHI3+C6H5COONa+NaI+H2O
10.

The nutrient required in trace amounts to accomplish various body functions is ………(a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein(c) Vitamin (d) Fat

Answer»

The nutrient required in trace amounts to accomplish various body functions is Vitamin.

11.

The sprouting of onion and potatoes can be delayed by the process of …(a) Freezing (b) Irradiation (c) Salting (d) Canning

Answer»

The sprouting of onion and potatoes can be delayed by the process of Irradiation.

12.

Mention whether the following statements are true or false. If false, write the correct statement.1. Iron is required for the proper functioning of thyroid gland2. Vitamins are required in large quantities for normal functioning of the body3. Vitamin C is a water-soluble Vitamin4. Lack of adequate fats in the diet may result in low body weight5. ISI mark is mandatory to certify agricultural products

Answer»

1. False.

Correct Statement: Iodine is required for the proper functioning of thyroid gland.

2. False.

Correct Statement: Vitamins are required in small quantities for normal functioning of the body.

3. True

5. False.

Correct Statement: AGMARK is mandatory to certify Agricultural products.

13.

The physician who discovered that Scurvy can be cured by ingestion of citrus fruit is ……(a) James Lind (b) Louis Pasteur (c) Charles Darwin (d) Isaac Newton

Answer»

The physician who discovered that Scurvy can be cured by ingestion of citrus fruit is James Lind.

14.

Let each of the student bring any food packet (jam, juice, pickle, bread, biscuit, etc). Note down the details like name of the product, manufacturer’s details, contents/ ingredients, net weight, Maximum Retail Price (MRP), date of manufacture, date of expiry/best before twelve months from the date of manufacture and standardized marks like ISI, AGMARK or FPO printed on the label for each of the items to create awareness.

Answer»
  • Name of the product – Thenkuzhal.
  • Manufacturer’s details – Sri Krishna Sweets. Handmade to provide authentic taste.
  • Ingredients – Rice flour, Refined vegetable oil, Urud dhal, Butter, Iodized salt, Cumin, Asafoetida.
  • Net weight – 500 gms.
  • Maximum Retail Prize – (MRP) ? 100.
  • Date of Manufacture – 09.04.2018.
  • Date of Expiry – Best before 30 days from the date of manufacture.
15.

What are the effects of consuming adulterated food?

Answer»
  • Increases the impurity in the food items 
  • Lack of Nutritional value 
  • Leads to various diseases
16.

Sanjana wants to buy a jam bottle in a grocery shop. What are the things she should observe on the label before purchasing it?

Answer»

1. Name of the product 

2. Manufacturer’s details, Contents/Ingredients 

3. Net Weight 4. Maximum Retail Price (MRP) 

5. Date of Manufacture 

6. Date of Expiry 

7. Date of best before us

17.

The doctor advises an adolescent girl who is suffering from anaemia to include more of leafy vegetables and dates in her diet. Why so?

Answer»

Iron deficiency is the most common nutrient deficiency in adolescent girls. Insufficient iron can lead to anaemia. Leafy vegetables and dates are rich in iron and other minerals. So the doctor advises to include more of these in the diet.

18.

How are Vitamins useful to us? Tabulate the source, deficiency diseases and symptoms of fat soluble Vitamins.

Answer»

Vitamins boost the immune system, support normal growth and development.

VitaminsSourcesDeficiency disordersSymptoms
Fat Soluble Vitamins.
Vitamin A (Retinol)Carrot, papaya, leafy vegetables, fish liver oil, egg yolk, liver, dairy productsXerophthalmia Nyctalopia (Night blindnesDryness of Cornea Unable to see in the night (dim light) Scaly Skin
Vitamin D (Calciferol)Egg, liver, dairy products, fish synthesized by the skin in sunligRickets (in children)Bowlegs, defective ribs, development of pigeon chest
Vitamin E (Tocopherol)Whole wheat, meat, vegetable oil, milkSterility in rats, reproductive abnormalitiesSterility
Vitamin K (Derivative of Quinone)Leafy vegetables, soya beans, milkBlood clotting is preventedExcessive bleeding due to delayed blood clotting
19.

Point out the factors that determine the binding force between antigen – antibody reactions.

Answer»

The binding force between antigen and antibody is due to three factors. They are closeness between antigen and antibody, noncovalent bonds or intermolecular forces and affinity of antibody.

20.

Paratope is an __________ (a) Antibody binding site on variable regions (b) Antibody binding site on heavy regions (c) Antigen binding site on variable regions (d) Antigen binding site on heavy regions

Answer»

(c) Antigen binding site on variable regions

21.

What is paratope?

Answer»

Paratope is antigen binding site that is present on the antibodies.

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22.

Distinguish between Epitope and Paratope.

Answer»

1. Epitope: Epitope is an antigenic determinant and is ‘ the active part of an antigen. 

2. Paratope: A paratope is the antigen – binding site and is a part of an antibody which recognizes and binds to an antigen.

23.

What are interferons? Mention their role.

Answer»

Interferons are antiviral proteins 

They are the included in chemical mediators of innate immunity

Role : They act against invading viral particles

24.

Differentiate between normal cells and cancer cells.

Answer»

Normal Cells: 

1. Small uniformly shaped nuclei Relatively large cytoplasmic volume 

2. Conformity in cell size and shape Cells arranged into discrete tissue 

3. May possess differentiated cell structures Normal presentation of cell surface markers

4. Lower levels of dividing cells Cell tissues clearly demarcated

Cancer Cells:

1. Large, variable shaped nuclei Relatively small cytoplasmic volume 

2. Variation in cell size and shape Disorganised arrangement of cells 

3. Loss of normal specialised features Elevated expression of certain cell markers 

4. Large number of dividing cells Poorly defined tumor boundaries

25.

Which of the following statement(s) is true regarding cancer cells? (a) Neoplasm or tumor cells show uncontrolled growth (b) They are metastatic (c) They lack contact inhibition (d) They may be benign or malignant. (a) (a) only (b) (b) and (c) (c) (d) only (d) All the above

Answer»

(d) All the above

26.

Paratope is an a) Antibody binding site on variable regions b) Antibody binding site on heavy regions c) Antigen binding site on variable regionsd) Antigen binding site on heavy regions

Answer»

c) Antigen binding site on variable regions

27.

Why dendritic cells are called so?

Answer»

Dendritic cells are called so because its covered with long, thin membrane extensions that resemble dendrites of nerve cells. These cells present the antigen to T-helper cells.

28.

Who coined the term antibody? (a) Selman Waksman (b) Alexander Fleming (c) Paul Ehrlich (d) Edward Jenner

Answer»

Correct answer is (c) Paul Ehrlich

29.

Which bacterial genus out of the following is the common pathogen causing pneumonia ? (a) Streptococcus sps (b) Lactobacillus sps (c) Pseudomonas sps (d) Salmonella sps

Answer»

Correct answer is (a) Streptococcus sps

30.

What is the diagnosis and treatment of filariasis? How can we control this disease ?

Answer»

I. Diagnosis and Treatment : 

For the patient, diethyl-carbamazine citrate is the drug used for twice a day for three weeks. Thereafter for five days every six months the same treatment is repeated. This becomes effective against filarial worms.

II. Prevention and Control:

1. Mosquito eradication should be done for controlling filariasis. 

2. In the areas with mosquitoes, avoid mosquito bite by using mosquito nets and insect repellents.

31.

How will you define Autoimmunity?

Answer»

Autoimmunity is due to an abnormal immune response in which the immune system fails to properly distinguish between self and non-self and attacks its own body.

32.

Pick out the disease which is caused by virus. (a) Candidiasis (b) Ascariasis (c) Poliomyelitis (d) Dysentery

Answer»

(c) Poliomyelitis

33.

Widal test is used for the diagnosis of ………………… (a) Malaria (b) Typhoid(c) Diabetes mellitus (d) HIV/AIDS

Answer»

Correct answer is (b) Typhoid

34.

Name the Agranulocytes involved in immune response.

Answer»

1. Lymphocyte 

2. Monocytes

35.

Why secondary immune response is more effective than primary immune response?

Answer»

Due to the establishment of immunological memory of the first encounter, the secondary immune response highly intense and effective.

36.

Explain the types of cells involved in immune system.

Answer»

Lymphocytes: About 20-30% of the white blood cells are lymphocytes. They have a large nucleus filling most of the cell, surrounded by a little cytoplasm. The two main types of lymphocytes are B and T lymphocytes. Both these are produced in the bone marrow. B lymphocytes (B cells) stay in the bone marrow until they are mature. Then they circulate around the body. Some remain in the blood, while others accumulate in the lymph nodes and spleen. T lymphocytes leave the bone marrow and mature in the thymus gland. Once mature, T cells also accumulate in the same areas of the body as B cells. Lymphocytes have receptor proteins on their surface. When receptors on a B cell bind with an antigen, the B cell becomes activated and divides rapidly to produce plasma cells. The plasma cells produce antibodies. Some B cells do not produce antibodies but become memory cells.

These cells are responsible for secondary immune response. T lymphocytes do not produce antibodies. They recognize antigenpresenting cells and destroy them. The two important types of T cells are Helper T cells and Killer T cells. Helper T cells release a chemical called cytokine which activates B cells. Killer cells more around the body and destroy cells which are damaged or infected. Apart from these cells neutrophils and monocytes destroy foreign cells by phagocytosis. Monocytes when they mature into large cells, they are called macrophages which performs phagocytosis on any foreign organism.

Dendritic cells are called so because its covered with long, thin membrane extensions that resemble dendrites of nerve cells. These cells present the antigen to T-helper cells. Four types of dendritic cells are known. They are langerhans, interstitial cells, myeloid and lymphoid cells.

37.

A patient was hospitalized with fever and chills. Merozoites were observed in her blood. What is your diagnosis?

Answer»

Appearance of merozoites in a patients blood may be an indication of malarial parasite – plasmodium.

38.

Discuss the clinical manifestation of AIDS.

Answer»

There are four stages of clinical manifestations or symptoms of AIDS.

1. Stage I : This is initial infection with the virus and formation of antibodies, usually 2-8 weeks after initial infection. 

2. Stage II : In this stage the person is asymptomatic carrier. Incubation takes place with a period ranging for 6 months to 10 years.

3. Stage III : This is called AIDS related complex (ARC). In this stage, one or more of the following clinical signs are seen. 

E.g. Recurrent fever for longer than one month, fatigue, unexplained diarrhoea, night sweats, shortness of breath, loss of more than 10 per cent body weight, etc. 

4. Stage IV : This is the end stage in which patient shows full blown AIDS. Thus it is called the end stage of HIV infection. Life threatening opportunistic infections (like pneumonia, tuberculosis, Kaposi sarcoma, etc.) are easily caught during this period.

39.

The sporozoite of the malarial parasite is present in __________ (a) saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito. (b) RBC of human suffering from malaria. (c) Spleen of infected humans. (d) Gut of female Anopheles mosquito

Answer»

(a) saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito.

40.

The test that confirms HIV positive is __________ (a) Western blot (b) Northern blot (c) Southern blot (d) all the above

Answer»

(a) Western blot

41.

The enzyme attached to RNA of HIV is ______(a) RNA polymerase (b) reverse transcriptase (c) primase (d) endonuclease

Answer»

(b) reverse transcriptase

42.

Autoimmunity is a misdirected immune response. Justify.

Answer»

Autoimmune diseases : Autoimmunity is due to an abnormal immune response in which the immune system fails to properly distinguish between self and non-self and attacks its own body. Our body produces antibodies (auto antibodies) and cytotoxic T cells that destroy our own tissues. If a disease-state results, it is referred to as auto-immune disease. Thus, autoimmunity is a misdirected immune response.

43.

Write about laboratory diagnosis and treatment of AIDS.

Answer»

I. Laboratory diagnosis :

1. There are two tests for diagnosis of AIDS. 

2. First test is ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) which is used to detect the HIV antibodies.

3. The second confirmatory test is Western Blot, which is used to weed out any false positive results. It is a highly specific test. 

4. It is based on detecting specific antibody to viral core protein and envelope glycoprotein.

II. Treatment of AIDS:

1. AIDS cannot be cured. 

2. Antiretroviral drugs are used to reduce the viral load and prolong the life of HIV patient. E.g. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) uses drugs such as TDF (tenofovir), EFV (Efavirenz), Lamivudine (3TC), etc.

44.

Assertion (A): HIV is a DNA virus. Reason (R): HIV belongs to genus Lentivirus (a) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) explains (A) (b) (A) is true (R) is false (c) Both (A) and (R) are false. (d) (A) is false (R) is true

Answer»

(d) (A) is false (R) is true

45.

Give reason :Typhoid is food and water-borne disease.

Answer»

Typhoid is caused due to Salmonella typhi which isa Gram-negative bacterium, transmitted from a patient or carrier to another healthy person through contaminated food or water. Flying insects, mostly houseflies transmit the bacteria from faeces to the food. Poor hygienic habits and improper public sanitation system spreads typhoid. Therefore, it is said to be food and water-borne disease

46.

The possible ways of transmission of AIDS are ………………… (A) Intimate sexual contact (B) Hugging and kissing (C) Blood transfusion without properly checking it (D) Eating from the same plate (E) Sharing bed linen (F) Transplacental infection from infected mother (G) Sharing same tattoo gun and syringes (a) (A), (C), (F), (G) (b) (B), (D), (E), (G)(c) (C), (D), (E), (F) (d) (A), (B), (C), (D)

Answer»

Correct answer is (a) (A), (C), (F), (G)

47.

Observe the given diagram and answer the following questions:(1) In which host stage II is completed?(2) What happens in step 1 and step 2?(3) Describe the events in step 3.(4) In which host stage I is completed?

Answer»

(1) Stage II is completed in human.

(2) Humans are infected at step 1 when mosquito bites human and larvae enter blood stream. In step 2 adult Wuchereria worms are formed in lymphatics.

(3) Mosquito carries the blood as it bites the human in step 4 and ingests microfilariae in human blood. Later the microfilariae start growing in the midgut of mosquito.

(4) Stage I is completed in mosquito.

48.

What are the modes of transmission of HIV or AIDS?

Answer»

The transmission of HIV occurs through following routes:

1. Sexual relations, mainly unsafe sexual contact including oral, vaginal and anal sex. 

2. Through blood and blood products either by blood transfusions or sharing needles and syringes. 

3. Transplacental From pregnant mother to her foetus through placenta. Nursing mother can also transmit HIV to her baby through lactation. 

4. Spreading the virus is very rare in case of accidental needle injury, artificial insemination with infected donated semen and transplantation with infected organs.

5. HIV is seen in urine, tears, saliva, breast milk and vaginal secretions but unless these body fluids enter the injuries and wounds, transmission is not easy.

49.

Opiate narcotic which is diluted before useA. MorphineB. CodeineC. HeroinD. Pethidine

Answer» Correct Answer - C
50.

Alcohol is the most socially accepted narcotic drug. Consumption of alcohol leads toA. State of hallucinationB. Suppression of breain activityC. Loss of memoryD. Cirrhosis of liver

Answer» Correct Answer - D