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If `fa n dg`are continuous function on `[0,a]`satisfying `f(x)=f(a-x)a n dg(x)(a-x)=2,`then show that`int_0^af(x)g(x)dx=int_0^af(x)dxdot` |
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Answer» Correct Answer - NA `int_(0)^(a)f(x)g(x)dx` `=int_(0)^(a)f(a-x)g(a-x)dx` `=int_(0)^(a)f(x).{2-g(x)}dx` `=2int_(0)^(a)f(x)dx-int_(0)^(a)f(x)g(x)dx` or `2int_(0)^(a)f(x)f(x)dx=2int_(0)^(a)f(x)dx` or `int_(0)^(a)f(x)g(x)dx=int_(0)^(a)f(x)dx` |
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