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ANSWER:

good PERMANENT magnet should produce a high magnetic field with a low mass, and should be stable against the influences which would demagnetize it. The desirable PROPERTIES of such magnets are typically stated in terms of the remanence and COERCIVITY of the magnet MATERIALS.

ANSWER:

FIRST QUADRANT I THINK so

Given:

An ELECTRON of charge e in rest in an ELECTRIC field between two PLATES separated by distance d and with potential difference V.

To find:

Force experienced by the charge ?

Calculation:

The general expression for force experienced by a STATIC charge q is :

Now, Electrostatic field intensity can be expressed as :

So, final answer is :

ANSWER:

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Explanation:

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ANSWER:

The DOMAIN structure dictates the shape of the hysteresis loop in a film so understanding the process of domain formation and how it CHANGES with film thickness, temperature and applied field is a key REQUIREMENT to EXPLAIN the magnetization in thin films.

Answer:

Let us consider an electron that is revolving around in a circle of radius r with a velocity v. The charge of the electron is e and its mass is m, both of which are constant. The time period T of the electrons’ ORBIT is:

T = CircumferenceVelocity = 2πrv

The current i due to the motion of the electron is the charge flowing through that time period,

i = −e2πrv = −ev2πr

Note, that the current is in the opposite direction as the electron is negatively charged. The magnetic moment due to a current loop enclosing an area A is given by:

μ = iA

Magnetic moment of an electron:

μ = −ev2πr A = −ev2πr πr2

μ = −erv2

Let us divide and multiply by the mass of the electron,

μ = −e2me me vr

We know, that the angular momentum L is given by:

L = mvr

Thus, we can write,

μ = −e2me L

Since, the angular momentum is given by the right-hand rule with respect to the velocity and the current in the opposite direction hence, the negative sign shows that the two quantities are on opposing directions as shown in the figure,

μ→ = −e2me L→

This is an important result as the magnetic moment is only dependent upon the angular momentum. This is why the orbital angular momentum and orbital magnetic moment terms are used interchangeably. The same is true for the SPIN angular moment.

For an electron revolving in an atom, the angular momentum is quantized as proposed by Niels Bohr.

The angular momentum is given by:

L = n h2π, n = 0, ±1, ±2 …

Where n is the orbit quantum number and h is the Planck’s constant,

μ = n −e2me h2π

μ = −n eh4πme

The quantity that multiplies with n is constant and is known as the Bohr Magneton μB,

μB = eh4πme = 9.27 × 10−27 J⁄T

Following is the table of links RELATED to magnetic characteristic:

Magnetization and Magnetic Intensity

Magnetic Classification of Materials

The Bohr Magneton is used very widely to express magnetic moments at the atomic scale.

The expression we obtained is good for only simple atoms like hydrogen and does not predict all the magnetic moment states of an electron. As you would have LEARNED in chemistry, the electron does not really revolve around the nucleus. Instead, the electron’s orbital magnetic moment is obtained by virtue of being trapped in the nuclei (plural of nucleus) potential well.

The spin and orbital magnetic moments of atoms combine vectorially in a sample to produce the net magnetic moment of that particular sample. It is these magnetic moments obtained by the combination of orbital and spin magnetic moments determine the magnetic properties of the materials.

Answer:

Declination :

The ANGLE between geographical MERIDIAN and magentic meridian

Dip :

The angle MADE between EARTH TOTAL magentic field and its horizontal component

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Expert's answer

For two indistinguishable particles, a state before the particle exchange must be physically equivalent to the state after the exchange, so these two state DIFFER at most by a complex phase factor.

If you had N coins. These are the CONSTITUENTS of your system and each has two POSSIBLE states: heads (H) and tails (T). There are 2N possible microstates.

In place of state distributions, his macrostates specified the number of (distinguishable) elementary cells ASSIGNED k (indistinguishable) particles. His microstates, accordingly, did not further specify which particles are assigned to which cell, but rather, for each k , which cells are assigned k particles.

Explanation:

Area(a)=50cm2

But the SI unit of area is Metre(m) so,

100cm=1m

THEN,

50cm2=(50/100)M2

=0.5 m2

FORCE(F)=100N

NOW,

PRESSURE=f/a

=100/0.5

=200 PASCAL(N/m2)

HENCE,the pressure=200 pascal

ANSWER:

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Explanation:

LIST of CUT OFFF

Answer:

K and Na will lose electron easily to acheive stable CONFIGURATION. But out of K and Na, K will lose electron more easily because to force of attraction on VALENCE electron of K is LEAST among the given.

ANSWER:

If the BULLET stops at a DEPTH of 10cm inside the wall, then find the retardation PRODUCED by the wall. Answer (a= -50000m/s)

ANSWER:

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ANSWER:

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Explanation:

because when the sun SHINES together how MUCH you can

ANSWER:

As in punching, SHEAR elasticity' is involved, the hole will be PUNCHED it

ULTIMATE shear stress

min >

= = 200 KN

Explanation:

follow now

Answer :-

(1) Linear momentum - Linear momentum is described as the RELATIONSHIP between between mass and velocity of a body. This can be written as p = MV where m stands for mass and v stands for velocity.

(2) Co- efficient of static FRICTION - Now the Co - efficient of static friction is a ratio of the force of friction between two bodies and the force PRESSING them together. It is expressed by the ratio of FRICTIONAL force(F) and Normal force(N).

(3) S.I Unit of force - The S.I unit of force is newton (N). One Newton can be described as the force required to accelerate an object with a mass of 1 kilogram 1 meter per second per second.

________________________________

Hope it's helpful

Thank you

ANSWER:

YOUNG's MODULUS:

A = 0.500 MM2(10-3m/1mm)2 = 5.0 × 10-7 m

1Pa = 1N/m2

EXPLANATION:

1. CCC and I am not SURE if you yygtyfc you are in NEED in

ANSWER:

FOLLOW now

Explanation:

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Answer:

In dielectric solids, the atoms or molecules experience not only the external applied ELECTRIC field but also the electric field produced by the DIPOLES. The resultant electric field ACTING on the atoms or molecules of dielectric substance is called the local field or an internal field.

Explanation:

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To SHOW:

Electrostatic FORCE is about 36 orders of magnitude stronger than gravitational force.

Calculation:

LET's consider 2 protons:

So, electrostatic force:

Now, gravitational force between the protons:

So, the RATIO:

[Hence proved]

ANSWER:

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Explanation:

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Answer:

stress is 152 MN and STRAIN is 0.00012

Explanation:

stress is equal to F/Area. so 3000/pir*radius^2 3000/3.14*0.0025^2 so 3000/ 0.000019625

hence stress = 152866242 N/m^2 or 152MN

strain = chanhe in lengeth / original length

strain = .06/500 = 0.00012

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Answer:

u=0,v=18 km/hr=5 m/s,t=5 sec

a=

t

v−u

=

5

5−0

=1 m/s

2

s=ut+

2

1

at

2

=12.5 m/s

2

(a) Average velocity V

AVE

=(12.5)/5=2.5 m/s

(b) Distance TRAVELLED is 12.5 m.

Explanation:

FOLLOW now

Answer:

Gamma RAYS

Explanation:

Gamma rays have the shortest WAVELENGTHS of the electromagnetic spectrum, and the highest ENERGIES. Gamma rays have such short wavelengths, that ASTRONOMERS usually discuss them in terms of ENERGY.

Answer:

Mass remains the same while the weight MIGHT CHANGE as mass does not depend on GRAVITATIONAL FIELD strength while weight does depend on it.

0.39 g

A metallic OBJECT to be PLATED with copper is placed in a solution of CuSO4. What mass of copper will be deposited if a CURRENT of 0.22 amp FLOWS through the CELL for 1.5 hours? The answer is 0.39 g Cu.

ANSWER:

Social dance etiquette is important because: It helps you FIT in with the social dance crowd and makes social interactions easier. It helps you KEEP the peace and avoid getting into conflicts with other DANCERS. It helps you avoid OFFENDING or upsetting your partner and other dancers.

average

= (6.12 + 6.24 + 6.00 + 5.88 + 5.76)/5

= 29.30 / 5

= 5.86 ohm

Absolute error

|dx1| = 5.86 - 6.12 = 0.26

|dx2| = 5.86 - 6.24 = 0.38

|dx3| = 5.86 - 6.00 = 0.24

|dx4| = 5.86 - 5.88 = 0.02

|dx5| = 5.86 - 5.76 = 0.10

(0.26 + 0.38 + 0.24 + 0.02 + 0.10)/5

= 0.2

relative error = absolute error/actual number

= 0.2 / 5.86 = 0.0341

percentage error = relative error × 100%

=0.0341×100

= 3.41%

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》PHASE of vibration

TWO particles are said to be in the same phase when they are moving in the same direction and with the same velocity, or in CORRESPONDING PARTS of their paths .

Answer:

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DEPOSITORY TRUST Company

The Depository Trust Company (DTC) is ONE of the WORLD's largest securities depositories. Founded in 1973 and based in New YORK City, the DTC is organized as a limited purpose trust company and provides safekeeping through electronic record-keeping of securities balances.

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Explanation:

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so here we go

now here concave MIRROR ,,

focal LENGTH (F)=-30 cm

object distance (u)=20 cm

so we have to image distance ie v

so apply mirror formula ie

1/v+1/u=1/f

so substitute given values we GET

1/v=1/20=1/(-30)

now be careful as there is negative sign

so 1/v=1/(-30)-1/20

=1/30+1/20

=(30+20)/30×20

=50/600

thus 1/v=1/12

hence v=12

hence the image is formed above principal axis and lies to the ryt of it ie in quadrant 1

hence image is likely to form 12 cm infronnt of the mirror

Explanation:

easily measure an inch by placing a QUARTER DOLLAR (US) or a 10p coin (UK) against the object (easiest if the hamster is sleeping, really).

If you don't have a coin, most people can measure an inch from the tip of their thumb to the first knuckle line on the inside of their thumb.

For METRIC measurements, 2cm is equivalent to a penny (UK) or a cent (US). If you have a CREDIT card or ID card on you, it's most likely to be 85.60mm x 53.98mm (or 3.370" x 2.125").

ANSWER:

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NEED to FinD :-

• The velocity at the end of 2 SECONDS .

We know the acceleration is the rate of change of velocity . So , that ,

• Now transposing dt to RHS , we have ,

LET the velocity at the end of 2 s be v . Therefore the upper limit of dv will be v and lower limit will be 2 . Also TIME will be integrated from t = 0 to t = 2 s . Putting the limits , we have ,

Answer:

It will be WRITTEN in a packet , if I buy packet milk !

Otherwise I don't know !

liquid is always MEASURED in LITRES only !

Explanation:

✎Rigidity is defined as the property exhibited by the solid to CHANGE in its SHAPE. That is when an EXTERNAL force is applied to the solid material, there won’t be any change in the shape. This shows that the particles are closely packed and the ATTRACTION between these particles are very strong.

ANSWER:

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THANK YOU

ANSWER:

OPTION C ..the GREATER its AMPLITUDE

EXPLANATION:

FREQUENCY is the RECIPROCAL of TIME PERIOD.

ANSWER:

ஒரு கண்ணாடி தடி பட்டுடன் தேய்க்கும்போது நேர்மறையாக சார்ஜ் செய்யப்படுகிறது, அதே நேரத்தில் பட்டு எதிர்மறையாக சார்ஜ் செய்யப்படுகிறது.

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ANSWER:

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EXPLANATION:

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Answer:

Wave represents the propagation of a disturbance in a medium. A wave function which describes the behaviour of a matter wave as a function of position and time. It has no direct physical significance as it is not an observable quantity. However , the values of the wave function is related to the probability of finding the matter particle at a GIVEN point in space at a given time.

In classical physics it is known that

The intensity of radiation is directly proportional to the square of Amplitude of the electromagnetic wave.

In an analogy in quantum mechanics it can be written that.

The density of matter particle is directly proportional to the square of Amplitude of the matter wave. An one dimensional potential well is a potential energy function mathematically given by.

V(x)=0at0≤x

=∞atx≤0andx≥L

The potential energy is ZERO INSIDE the well and infinite at the boundaries. A particle trapped inside the infinitely high potential well can propagate along x-axis and gets REFLECTED from the boundary walls at x = 0 and x = L, but can never LEAVE the well. Such a state is called bound state.

With zero potential energy the particle behaves as a free particle inside the well. Therefore the schodinger equation reads.

ħ2/2m.(d2Ψ(x))/dx2=EΨ(x)

(d2Ψ)/dx2+2mE/ħ2=0

(d2Ψ)/dx2+k2E(x)=0

The behaviour of the particle describe by the solution of equation (+x) and the termBe(−jkx) represents the motion in the backward (-x) direction. Here A and B are constants.

ANSWER:

F= COEFFICIENT m g

Explanation:

f=0.3×30×10

f= 90

Answer:

OUTSIDE the limits. since it MUST be continuous and it is zero in the region of infinite potential. The first DERIVATIVE does not NEED to be continuous at the boundary (unlike other problems), because of the infinite discontinuity in the potential.

Answer:

Primary mirror (for reflecting TELESCOPES), which CARRIES the same role as the primary lens in a refracting telescopes. EYEPIECE, which magnifies the image. MOUNTING, which supports the tube, enabling it to be rotated. Telescopes can be divided into two MAIN categories: refractors and reflectors.

Answer:

Milk is converted into curd or YOGURT by the process of fermentation. Milk CONSISTS of globular proteins called casein. Here curd forms because of the chemical reaction between the lactic acid bacteria and casein. During fermentation, the bacteria USE ENZYMES to produce energy (ATP) from lactose.

Answer:

Zero polynomial is the ONE where all the coefficients are equal to zero. So, the DEGREE of the zero polynomial is either UNDEFINED, or it is set equal to -1.