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ANSWER:

do SALLY WEEK WII aljgdhj

Step-by-step explanation:

1. if the question is 2,4 so first we NEED to TAKE out the LCM of the number so 2,4so 2X1 =2 and 2x2=4 then the LCM is 4

I can't ANSWER your QUESTION because I'm STILL FIRST classgfrhguhhdhh

the PROBABILITY of GETTING a NUMBER other than 2 and 5 =4/2=2/1=2

ANSWER:

JUDY DAILY SPENT is = 400

Answer:

1/2, will be the PROBABILITY of your QUESTION.

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

HOPE this WOULD HELP you

answer= 213444 option (c) is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

21= 3×7

36= 2×2×3×3

66= 2×6×11

LCM= 2²×3²×7×11

WE SEE THAT IF WE MULTIPLY BY 7 AND 11 IN

LCM , ALL FACTORS BECOME IN ² FORM AND

THEN THE NUMBER FORMED IS A LEAST

PERFECT NUMBER DIVIDED BY GIVEN NUMBER.

=>>> 2²×3²×7²×11²

= 4×9×49×121

= 213444

option (c) 213444 is correct

ANSWER:

I NEED brainliest answer ❤️

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

PROFFIT is -50$

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

HOPE this WOULD HELP you ..

Answer:

5-- 15 minutes

6 4DEG.. at 4 and 20deg. at 12

ANSWER:

In INTERMEDIATE you should OPT CEC.

All the BEST for your FUTURE.

hope it was helpfull.....

ANS is attached

If you FEEL that i have MADE mistake please LET me know......

Step-by-step explanation:

hello bro please mark me the BRAINLIEST

I'll TELL u the answer step by step....

DIFFERENCE= SUBTRACTION

(let the COMMON multiple be 'x')

hence, 5x-3x=44

2x=44

x=44/2

x=22

smaller number =3×x=3×22=66

hope you like it.. but please mark me the BRAINLIEST.. and you can mark only 1 AMONG us 2 the BRAINLIEST so please mark me

ANSWER:

why don't you REFER to GOOGLE if no one gives you answer on it google will GIVE you right answer.

ANSWER:

A WORK = 1/30

B work =1/45

C work = 1/90

ANSWER:

- 25 = 25 , 3/8 = 8/3

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

Answer:

11:9

Step-by-step explanation:

121 : 99

divide both by 11

11 : 9

Answer:

x3  + a x2 – bx + 10 is divisible by x2 – 3 x + 2

Factors of x2 – 3 x + 2 are (x - 1) (x - 2)

HENCE, f(1) = 0 

1 + a - b + 10 = 0

a - b = - 11..........(i)

f(2) = 0

23 + 22 a - 2b + 10 = 0

8 + 4A - 2b = -10

4a - 2b = - 18

2a - b = -9..........(II)

Subtracting (i) from (i)

a - 2a - b + b = -11 + 9

-a = -2

a = 2

Consider,

a - b = -11

2 - b = -11

2 + 11 = b

b = 13

Step-by-step explanation:

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Volume of cone = Volume of sphere

It is because no extra clay is USED nor clay is added so the AMOUNT of clay will REMAIN constant and hence volume will be equal.

Hence, the radius of sphere of sphere is 6 cm.

Hope it helps u.....   :D

ANSWER:

2688

Step-by-step explanation:

'-' multiplied by '-' is EQUAL to '+'

so answer = 42x64 = 2688

Hope you FOUND it helpful!

:)

ANSWER:

I don't know

this QUESTION

✞︎ GIVEN :-

✰︎ Here the LCM is x

So,

➪︎

➪︎

➪︎

➪︎

➪︎

✯︎ Therefore x = 1......

★ Given :

• Cost of LEVELLING square at ₹15 PER meter is ₹19,935.

★ To Find :

• We hqve ro find the cost of levelling the square at ₹22 per meter.

As, we have given the cost of levelling square in ₹ 15 per meter is ₹19,935.

So, If we devide total cost at ₹15 per meter by 15 we will GET tge area of the square.

Now,

If we will multiply the area of squqre by the 22 we will get cost of levelling at ₹22 per meter.

→ Cost of levelling = 1329 22

→ Coat of levelling = ₹ 29,238

Cost of levelling the square lawn at ₹ 22 per meter is ₹ 29,238.

ANSWER:

i HOPE this is usefull☺

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

I HOPE you will UNDERSTAND

ANSWER:

HOPE it WORKS............................™✌️✌️

ANSWER:

LET the no.be X, so that

The SMALLEST no. is 24.

FOLLOW ME PLZ

ANSWER:

this DEPEND in your answer

-10-17=-27

-11-17=-28

-95-17=-112

If X>y then,

-x<-y

(X+2)²

=x²+2(x)(2)+(2)²

=x²+4x+4

Answer:

10.Z

9.c

8.d

7.a

6.c

5.b

4.d

3.a

2.a

1.c

ANSWER:you can EASILY START this

ANSWER:

I don't KNOW what you are ASKING me for

Answer:

> every 65 and 5/11 min, they coincide. Now the clock in question coincide every 64 minutes; therefore 24 hours in your clock MEANS 64*22 minutes or 1408 minutes. So your clock should LOSE 1440-1408=32 minutes. OTHERWISE, the clock gains 32 minutes as it is faster than usual.

Answer:

The required answer is 3/7

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

There are 4 weeks in 31 days , So 4 Sundays are already fixed we just have to find the PROBABILITY for the 5th Sunday.

Remaining days are 31 -28= 3

So total number of Possibilities is 7 ( Number of days in week)

Required Probability of days is 3 ( Number of remaining days)

So the answer is

ANSWER:

(C)

Step-by-step explanation:

given;

a² + a³

= a⁵ (the base is same and POWERS are added)

:)

Answer:

hi MATE I studing 8 th to 9th

I will HELP you

(8+0.2)(8+0.7)=(8)^2+(+0.2 +0.7)*8+(0.2*0.7)

then SUBSTITUTE the value

hope it helps you

be HOME be safe

for more answer follow me

A) 4×4+x+4

x=16+4

x=20

B)2×2+x+6

x=4+6

x=10

C)x×2×2-3

x=4-3

x=1

Answer:

60 is the answer

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

(MARK ME AS BRAINLEIST)

Answer:

the probability of GETTING a no. greater than 2 is

4/6 = 2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

the formula is =

favourable outcomes / total no. of outcomes

I hope it helps you

.....

....

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.

.

.

MARK me as brainilist PLEASE

ANSWER:

it is WRONG the PROBABILITY IS13

ANSWER:

1) X + y ^34

2) 2a + b^34

Step-by-step explanation:

in binomial there are TWO variables so-

x+y^34

2A+b^34

Answer:

fins in LOCOMOTION

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

Fins typically function as foils that produce lift or thrust, or provide the ability to steer or stabilize motion while TRAVELING in water, air, or other fluids.

Fins are ALSO USED to increase surface areas for heat transfer purposes, or simply as ornamentation.

Fins first evolved on fish as a means of locomotion.

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

HOPE this HELPS you.......

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

HOPE this WOULD be RIGHT.......

ANSWER:  OF QUESTION 5 part 1

A'=B

STEP BY STEP EXPLANATION

A'=B

A' = U-A

A' = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7} - {2,4,6}

A' = {1,3,5,6,7}

B = {1,3,5,7}

A'=B     PROVED

SEARCH on GOOGLE or YouTube.you will GET the ANSWER.

Answer:

9 days =289 TOYS

1 DAY = 289/9 toys

1 day = 32 toys

••• therefore..6 days = 6 ×32

= 192.....is the CORRECT answer.... MARK as BRAINIEST

Step-by-step EXPLANATION:

cos⁴A+sin⁴A+2sin²Acos²A

=(cos²A)²+(sin²A)²+2sin²Acos²A

=(sin²A+cos²A)²

=1²

=1