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CP OF 10 PENCILS=SP OF 8 PENCILSLET THE CP OF 1 PENCIL BE ₹1CP OF 10 PENCILS = ₹10SP OF 8 PENCILS = ₹10SP OF 1 PENCIL = ₹ 10/8 = ₹ 5/4SP>CPPROFIT = SP-CP= 5/4 -1= ₹1/4PROFIT % =PROFIT/CP×100= 1/4/1×100= 25%

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Weight is directly proportional to volume when density is constant.In the both cases the density is same so weight is directly proportional to volume.VOLUME IS DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL TO WEIGHT.

VOLUME OF CUBOID = L*B*HSo, W1/W2=V1/V2W1=500KGV1=L*B*HW2=?V2=(20% of L)*(20% of B)*(20% of H)V2=(20/100*L)*(20/100*B)*(20/100*H)V2=(1/125)(L*B*H)V2=(1/125)(V1)

W1/W2=V1/V2500/W2=V1/((1/125)*V1)500/W2=125W2=500/125=》 W2= 4KG

for this find weight of one applehence2kg 800gm =2*1000gm+800gm=2000+800=2800gmhenceweight of one apple =2800/32=87.5gmno of apples in 35 kg will be =35*87.5=3062.5gm

So profit is of 35 percent that means135 percent =150001 percent will be 15000/135=111.1now 10 percent loss means 90 percent price soit will be111.11*90=10000

normal ray is the answe

Let's say that B makes $100.

Then A makes $75.

This can be solved by setting up the proportion 100 / 75 = x / 100 75x = 10000 x = 133.3

So, B's income is 33.3% more than A's income.

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The B's income is lower then A's income and the percentage difference is 25%

SP = 368 LOSS = 8% CP = 368/0.92 = 400 PROFIT = 10% SP = 400*1.1 = 440

let x€ A THEN x€ Bsince B is subset of Cthen x belongs to Ctherefore A is subset of C since C is subset of Atherefore A=C

we know that

1 ) x^m / x^n = x^(m - n)

2 ) (x^m)^n = x^mn

3 ) x^0 = 1

4) x^m * x^n = x^(m+n)

Now, LHS=(x^a/x^b)^1/ab( x^b /x^c)^1/bc(x^c/x^a)^1/ca

= (x^a-b)^1/ab(x^b-c)^1/bc(x^c-a)^1/ca

= x^(a-b)/ab * x^(b-c)/bc * x^(c-a)/ca

= x^[(a-b)/ab + (b-c)/bc + (c-a)/ca]

= x^[c(a-b)/abc + a(b-c)/abc + b(c-a)/abc ]

= x^{ [c(a-b)+ a(b-c) + b(c-a) ]/abc }

= x^( ac - bc + ab - ac + bc - ab ] /abc

= x^0/abc

= x^0

= 1

= RHS

Hence proved

crop the question which we have to answer as we cannot provide multiple answers.

SP = 6525 LOSS = 10% CP = 6525/0.9 = 7250 PROFIT = 10% SP = 7250*1.1 = 7975

Solution :-

Total length of the painting including the margin = 40 cm

Total width of the painting including the margin = 28 cm

Area of the painting including the margin = 40*28

Area of the painting including the margin = 1120 sq cm

Length of the painting without the margin = 40 - (2 + 2)

= 40 - 4

= 36 cm

Width of the painting without the margin = 28 - (2 + 2)

= 28 - 4

= 24 cm

Area of the painting without the margin = 36*24

Area of the painting without the margin = 864 sq cm

Area of the margin = Area of the painting including the margin - Area of the painting without the margin

⇒ 1120 - 864

= 256 sq cm

So, the total area of the margin is 256 sq cm

Thanks

2

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cp=100; let X 100/X; Sp=80 800 ; 80/800; 100/X=80/800=1/10; X=100×10=1000; actual price=1000,

Let the cost price be rs 100 if it is sold at a loss of 5%. Then , s.p.=(100-5)= rs 95 if it is sold at a sold at a profit of 2%. Then, s.p.= rs(100+7)=rs 107 increase in actual gain = rs(107_95)=rs 12. If gain is rs 12,then c.p.= rs100. If gain is rs 1,then c.p.=rs 100/12 if gain is rs 27,then c.p.=(100/12×27)=rs 225. Hence , the c.p. of watch is rs 225.

total CP=420+85=505Profit=60so SP=CP+Profit=505+60=565

TriangleABC, TriangleAPQ, TriangleAMN

I solved it using Laplace transform

Thanks

No not possible as it will contradict playfair axiom.