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This section includes InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 201. |
Why is heave motion of the carrier not corrected in the FLOLS?(a) Two aircraft use simultaneously(b) Atmospheric fluctuations(c) Too random motion(d) Not economical |
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Answer» The correct option is (a) Two aircraft use simultaneously To explain I would say: Lens pointing angles can be adjusted to a quadratic function of heave and can be compensated. This compensation is not implemented because the “meatball” is often shared by two aircraft on final approach simultaneously. |
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| 202. |
Which of the following is an optical landing aid used in aircraft carriers?(a) ACLS(b) FLOLS(c) SPN-41(d) SPN-46 |
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Answer» Correct choice is (b) FLOLS Easy explanation: FLOLS or the Fresnel lens optical landing system consists of an array of 5 Fresnel lens showing the pilot a yellow spot that moves relatively to a lighted green horizontal reference bar. |
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| 203. |
Which of the following is not required in a category II system?(a) Dual ILS system(b) Rain removal equipment(c) Head up display(d) Missed approach attitude guidance |
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Answer» The correct answer is (c) Head up display The explanation is: In a category II system the aircraft must carry dual ILS receivers, dual flight directors, two pilots, radar altimeter, rain removal equipment and missed approach attitude guidance. Auto throttle system may also be required. |
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| 204. |
What is the radiation pattern of the marker beacons?(a) Triangle(b) Circle(c) Square(d) Fan shape |
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Answer» Right option is (d) Fan shape For explanation: Marker beacons provide pilot alerts along the approach path. Each beacon radiates a fan shaped vertical beam that is approximately ±40° wide along the glide path by ±85° wide perpendicular to the path. |
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| 205. |
What is the altitude at which the landing must be aborted if a runway is not in sight?(a) Low altitude(b) Decision height(c) Abortion altitude(d) Visibility altitude |
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Answer» Correct choice is (b) Decision height To explain: During a landing, the decision height or DH is the height above the runway at which the landing must be aborted if the runway is not in sight. Usually, with better avionic systems and electronic aids, the DH can be lowered. |
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| 206. |
The restriction of visibility to various degrees defined by law in certain countries is called _______(a) Instrument meteorological conditions(b) Flight rules(c) Weather instrument law(d) Weather visibility conditions |
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Answer» The correct choice is (a) Instrument meteorological conditions For explanation I would say: Instrument meteorological conditions or IMC are those in which visibility is restricted to various degrees defined by law in certain countries. Aircraft operating in IMC are supposed to fly under instrument flight rules also defined by law. |
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| 207. |
What is the decision height for the category I landing system?(a) 100ft(b) 500ft(c) 1000ft(d) 200ft |
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Answer» The correct answer is (d) 200ft Easy explanation: The decision height for category I systems is not less than 200ft, visibility not less than 2600ft, or runway visual range not less than 1800ft with appropriate runway lighting. |
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| 208. |
Which category deals with zero visibility conditions?(a) Category I(b) Category III C(c) Category II(d) Every category |
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Answer» Right option is (b) Category III C To explain I would say: Category III C is the system’s ability to fly under zero visibility conditions. It has no DH and RVR limits. |
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| 209. |
Which of the following are used to measure visibility conditions?(a) Ceilometers(b) Barometers(c) Altimeters(d) Radar |
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Answer» Correct answer is (a) Ceilometers Explanation: Ceilometers and transmissometers are used to measure terminal area visible conditions. These measures visible conditions differ from each airport and due to weather. During each approach, these data radioed to the pilot. |
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| 210. |
What is the speed at which the takeoff is aborted when there is an engine failure?(a) Decision speed(b) Stall speed(c) Rotational speed(d) Takeoff speed |
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Answer» Right answer is (b) Stall speed Best explanation: At any speed greater than the decision speed, takeoff is not aborted even when there is an engine failure. Stall speed is lower than the decision speed and hence the takeoff is aborted. |
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| 211. |
What is the typical scanning rate of the MLS antenna?(a) 20,000°/sec(b) 10000°/sec(c) 500°/sec(d) 37°/sec |
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Answer» Correct answer is (a) 20,000°/sec Explanation: The very high scanning rate of 20,000°/sec provides about 40 samples per second of the angle data, a rate ten times higher than that needed to control the aircraft. |
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| 212. |
Which of the following determines the required transmission power in MLS?(a) Noise(b) Bit error rate(c) Runway length(d) Aircraft size |
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Answer» Right answer is (b) Bit error rate To explain: The acceptable bit error rate of the differential phase shift keying (DPSK) transmissions at the 20-nmi limit determines the transmitter power needed in the ground stations. |
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| 213. |
What is the number of channels in the MLS system?(a) 10(b) 50(c) 4000(d) 200 |
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Answer» The correct choice is (d) 200 The best I can explain: The MLS station transmit both angle and data functions on one of 200 frequencies between 5031.0 and 5190.7 MHz. The relatively high number of channels allows the use of multiple MLS in metropolitan cities. |
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| 214. |
In an aircraft ESA the beam shape and direction is controlled by _______(a) Navigator(b) Computer(c) Ground controller(d) Cannot be controlled |
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Answer» Correct choice is (b) Computer The best explanation: The beam shape and direction is controlled by an on-board computer which gives the necessary phase shift to the phase shifters to change the beam direction and shape. |
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| 215. |
Which of the following can track multiple targets with ease?(a) AESA(b) PESA(c) ESA(d) Conical radar antenna |
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Answer» Correct option is (a) AESA Best explanation: AESA radars can produce multiple radar frequencies with multiple beams. This allows the radar to have faster scan rates and can track multiple targets with ease. |
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| 216. |
The possibility of one phased array radar to act as multiple radars is called as _______(a) ESA(b) Multimode(c) Digital(d) interleaving radar modes |
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Answer» Right option is (d) interleaving radar modes To elaborate: Beam agility makes it possible for one phased array radar to act as multiple radars each with its own beam shape and scan pattern! This is referred to as interleaving radar modes. The same radar can be tracking for airborne threats using one beam shape and scan pattern while searching for ground targets using another beam shape and scan pattern. |
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| 217. |
Which of the following is not a part of the propulsion subsystem of a satellite?(a) Gyroscope(b) Jet thruster(c) AKM(d) Fuel control system |
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Answer» Right answer is (a) Gyroscope Easy explanation: The propulsion subsystem consists of the AKM(Apogee kick motor), jet thruster and the fuel control system. Gyroscopes and other attitude systems fall under the attitude control subsystem. |
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| 218. |
Which of the following is not a satellite subsystem?(a) Ground station(b) Power system(c) Telemetry tracking(d) Communication subsystem |
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Answer» Right option is (a) Ground station Explanation: The communication subsystem is the most important part of the satellite. It requires varies additional systems like the power system, propulsion system, telemetry system for its proper functioning. The ground system however is not one of the satellite subsystem and is independent of the satellite. It is just a transponder to monitor and command the satellite. |
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| 219. |
What is the fundamental limitation of the radar that is overcome by Electronic scanned array radars?(a) More clarity(b) Situation awareness(c) Better range(d) Less noise |
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Answer» The correct answer is (b) Situation awareness The explanation is: The fundamental limitation in military radars is situation awareness. This limitation is overcome by the electronically scanned array which has a very high rate of scanning. |
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| 220. |
The lateral displacement error of the aircraft form the intended track given the course deviation signal is called as?(a) Navigation error(b) Pilot error(c) Flight technical error(d) Instrumental error |
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Answer» Right option is (c) Flight technical error Best explanation: Flight technical error is the lateral displacement error of the aircraft from the intended track given the course deviation error signal generated by the navigation system. |
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| 221. |
Who provides assurance between the collision of aircraft with another aircraft or terrain?(a) ATM(b) Pilot(c) FMS(d) Autopilot |
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Answer» Right answer is (a) ATM The explanation is: The primary service provided by ATM is separation assurance for the prevention of collisions between aircraft and to prevent aircraft collisions with terrain and obstructions. |
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| 222. |
The configuration in which multiple pressure ports are located in the aircraft forebody is called as _____(a) Flush air data system(b) Redundant air data system(c) Multiple port system(d) Nose cone port system |
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Answer» Right option is (a) Flush air data system To elaborate: Hypersonic vehicles used the concept of locating multiple pressure ports around an aircraft forebody to extract total pressure and flow direction. This type of configuration is referred to as the flush air data system and has been used at NASA Dryden research flights. |
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| 223. |
The error caused by two aircraft flying close to each other replying to the same interrogation pulse is called ______(a) Garble(b) Fruit(c) Noise(d) Interference |
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Answer» The correct option is (a) Garble For explanation I would say: If several aircraft are within the range of the secondary radar and reply to the same interrogation pulse there is a chance that two reply pulses can overlap each other and cause an error in the values of interfere with different aircraft. |
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| 224. |
How does mode S identify each aircraft?(a) Unique code for each transponder(b) Lapsed time(c) RCS(d) Directly talking to the pilot |
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Answer» Right answer is (a) Unique code for each transponder Easiest explanation: Unlike the ATCRBS where a squawk code is dialed into the transponder, a mode S transponder has a unique identity permanently assigned to it. The mode S radar system can have more than 16 million different identities, enough for each airplane in the world to have a unique identity. |
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| 225. |
What is the number of transmitting modules in a common AESA?(a) 20 to 50(b) 1000 to 2000(c) 150 to 200(d) 1 |
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Answer» Right option is (b) 1000 to 2000 To explain I would say: A typical airborne active array contains 1000 to 2000 transmitting modules, each capable of transmitting 5 to 20 watts of power. |
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| 226. |
Which one of the following is common between AESA and PESA?(a) Number of transmitting modules(b) Number of frequencies that can be used(c) Power required by each transmitter(d) Electronic scanning capability |
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Answer» Right option is (d) Electronic scanning capability For explanation I would say: One of the basic common features between the AESA and PESA is that both provide electronic scanning. This allows the use of narrow beams since the rate of scanning is very high. |
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| 227. |
What is the surveillance range of a general TCAS system?(a) 30 sec(b) 20 min(c) 2 min(d) 4 min |
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Answer» The correct option is (d) 4 min The best I can explain: The range of a general TCAS system is around 4 minutes before collision. At 45 seconds before collision TCAS gives traffic advisory and at 25 seconds before collision provides resolution advisory. |
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| 228. |
What does the threshold number for Tau depend on?(a) Speed of the aircraft(b) Size of the aircraft(c) Experience of the pilots(d) Maneuverability of the aircraft |
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Answer» Right option is (d) Maneuverability of the aircraft Easiest explanation: the threshold number for Tau, whether it is 10 sec or 100 sec depends on the ability of the aircraft to maneuver and avoid a collision. |
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| 229. |
Which of the following causes a “burble” at the threshold and along the glide path?(a) High speed landings(b) Low visibility(c) Heaving motion of ship(d) Steady state wake |
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Answer» Right answer is (d) Steady state wake Explanation: Steady state wake caused by the relative wind over the ship’s deck and around the superstructure, Which causes a “burble” at the threshold and the glide path. |
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| 230. |
Which of the following amplifiers is used in the transmitter substation?(a) RF amplifiers(b) Buffer amplifiers(c) Klystron amplifier(d) Operational amplifiers |
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Answer» Right answer is (c) Klystron amplifier To elaborate: The signals to be sent to the satellite might be TV programs, multiple telephone calls, or digital data from a computer. These signals are used to modulate the carrier, which is then amplified by a large traveling-wave tube or klystron amplifier. |
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| 231. |
The ratio of the photons converted to signal generating electrons to the total number of photons arriving is called as?(a) Quantum efficiency(b) Photon ratio(c) Conversion ratio(d) Photons to electron ratio |
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Answer» Correct answer is (a) Quantum efficiency The best explanation: Only a certain number of photons arriving at the detector are converted to signal generating electrons. The quantum efficiency of the detector is defined as the ratio of the photons converted to signal generating electrons to the total number of photons arriving. |
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| 232. |
Which of the following includes A/D conversions and packing of discrete signals into logical words?(a) Input processing(b) Output processing(c) Signal processing(d) Mainframe processor |
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Answer» The correct answer is (a) Input processing The explanation is: Input processing usually involves A/D conversion and packing of discrete signals into logic words, plus implementation of special serial data interfaces. |
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| 233. |
Which one of the following is not a part of the processor subassembly?(a) CPU(b) Volatile RAM(c) Non volatile RAM(d) Non erasable ROM |
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Answer» Right choice is (d) Non erasable ROM Explanation: The air data equations are solved in the processor assembly, which contains the CPU, memory for the operational flight program which can be electrically erased or EEPROM, data storage memory( usually a volatile RAM), and non volatile RAM. |
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| 234. |
______ is used for setting stabilizer position and high speed performance boundaries?(a) Mach number(b) True airspeed(c) Calibrated airspeed(d) Altitude |
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Answer» The correct answer is (a) Mach number Easy explanation: Mach number is used for programming stabilizer position for speed stability, defining high speed performance boundaries such as flutter onset, and for defining optimal cruise paths. |
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| 235. |
The ESA is more _________ since it has no moving parts.(a) Prone to failure(b) Powerful(c) Reliable(d) Accurate |
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Answer» Right choice is (c) Reliable Easiest explanation: The antenna reliability is dramatically improved in an ESA since there is no moving parts present. The antennas face one direction but the radar beam can be steered electronically to a very wide angle. |
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| 236. |
Which of the following is false with respect to PESA?(a) PESA can only have one main beam and one transmit power source(b) All elements combine to a single receiver. Each element steers the beam through phase shifters(c) Because it uses a, multiple frequencies, it is less susceptible to enemy jammers(d) PESA is more technically simple |
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Answer» The correct option is (c) Because it uses a, multiple frequencies, it is less susceptible to enemy jammers To explain I would say: In a PESA only one transmitter drives the whole antenna and hence only one frequency can be achieved at a time. This allows it to be more susceptible to jammers. |
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| 237. |
The photovoltaic or photoconductive detectors are packaged as ___________(a) Star detectors(b) Star position fixer(c) Charge coupled devices(d) Photon coupled devices |
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Answer» Right choice is (c) Charge coupled devices The best explanation: The photovoltaic or photoconductive detectors are packaged as charge coupled devices. These can produce an array of small cells or pixels. CCD is a closely spaced monolithic array of metal insulator semiconductor capacitors. |
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| 238. |
What are used to reduce or stop synchronization problems while receiving?(a) Clock recovery circuits(b) Demodulators(c) Synchronizer(d) Band pass filter |
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Answer» Right option is (a) Clock recovery circuits The best explanation: Clock recovery circuits are used to remedy the synchronization problem encountered in demultiplexing. The clock pulse is derived from the transmitted signal so that synchronization errors are reduced. |
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| 239. |
The ratio of the focal length to aperture is called the __________(a) Critical aperture(b) Effective aperture(c) Focal number(d) f/ number |
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Answer» Correct answer is (d) f/ number Easiest explanation: The ratio of focal length to aperture is called the f/ number. For example, an f/10 telescope may have a 30 in. focal length and a 3 in. aperture. |
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| 240. |
Which of the following components receives, translates the signal frequency and re-transmits the signal in a satellite?(a) Repeater(b) Relay(c) Transponder(d) Transducer |
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Answer» Correct choice is (c) Transponder The explanation is: The uplink signals from earth are amplified, translated in frequency, and re-transmitted on the downlink to one or more earth stations. The component that performs this function is known as a transponder. |
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| 241. |
Which of the following are common baseband signals transmitted from the earth ground station?(a) Navigational data, computer data, video(b) Computer data, navigational data, voice(c) Voice, video, computer data(d) Computer data |
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Answer» Right answer is (c) Voice, video, computer data Best explanation: An earth station takes the signals to be transmitted, known as baseband signals, and modulates a microwave carrier. The three most common baseband signals are voice, video, and computer data. |
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| 242. |
Anti reflection coated optics reduce __________(a) Optical transmission losses(b) Reflection angle(c) Refraction(d) Intensity of star image |
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Answer» Correct option is (a) Optical transmission losses For explanation: For anti-reflection coated optics, the optical transmission losses may be 1% or 2% at each air to glass or glass to air optical control surface within the telescope, including windows or sensor covers or surfaces. For uncoated optics, the loss per surface is about 4% to 5%. |
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| 243. |
The circuit used to regenerate clock pulses from the transmitted PAM signals is called ____(a) Clock demodulator circuits(b) Timer circuits(c) Clock receiving circuits(d) Clock recovery circuits |
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Answer» Correct option is (d) Clock recovery circuits Easiest explanation: Instead of using a free-running clock oscillator set to the identical frequency of the transmitter system clock, the clock for the demultiplexer is derived from the received PAM signal itself. A circuit called the clock recovery circuits are typical of those used to generate the demultiplexer clock pulses. |
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| 244. |
What is the image of the star at the focal plane called as?(a) Star fixed image(b) Celestial interference image(c) Diffraction limited image(d) Spot image |
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Answer» Correct answer is (c) Diffraction limited image For explanation: The image of a star at the focal plane of the telescope with perfect, unobstructed optics is a bright spot surrounded by a series of concentric dark and light rings. This image is called a diffraction limited image. |
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| 245. |
The use of ______ allows a small sky background view with a large telescopic field view?(a) CCD(b) CVF(c) VVR(d) CSK |
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Answer» Right answer is (a) CCD The explanation: The use of CCD arrays allows a small instantaneous field of view for sky background, for improved signal to noise ratio, while maintaining a large telescopic field of view. |
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| 246. |
What is the physical diameter of the first optical element in the telescope?(a) Optical aperture(b) Field of view(c) Effective focal length(d) Light detector |
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Answer» Correct choice is (a) Optical aperture To explain I would say: Each design of a telescope is characterized by an optical aperture, an effective focal length, and a field of view. The optical aperture is the physical diameter of the first element in the telescope. |
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| 247. |
What type of polarization is used for ground waves?(a) Vertical polarization(b) Right circular polarization(c) Horizontal polarization(d) Left circular polarization |
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Answer» Right answer is (a) Vertical polarization Best explanation: At lower frequencies, along the surface of the earth, vertical polarization is universally used. This way minimum signal is radiated into the ground. |
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| 248. |
Ground waves are not adversely affected by which of the following factors?(a) Conductivity of earth(b) Dielectric of earth(c) Lightning strikes(d) Day/night changes |
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Answer» Correct answer is (d) Day/night changes Explanation: Propagation of ground waves depends on several additional factors. Some of which are conductivity and dielectric constant of earth. Weather changes like thunderstorms and lightning strikes also create extra atmospheric noise and degrade signal. |
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| 249. |
The system which uses FM for the subcarriers is called _____(a) FM II system(b) FM/FM system(c) FM/AM system(d) 2 stage FM system |
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Answer» Right answer is (b) FM/FM system The best I can explain: Generally the individual signals which require multiplexing are frequency modulated. These signals are then added up by the mixer and the resulting output signal is again frequency modulated before transmission. |
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| 250. |
What is the velocity factor of a coaxial cable having an insulator with dielectric constant 2.1?(a) 0.69(b) 0.54(c) 0.32(d) 0.45 |
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Answer» Correct option is (a) 0.69 The explanation: The velocity factor in a line can be computed with the expression Where ε is the dielectric constant of the insulating material. |
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