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Trignometry solve it fast​

Answer»

Given Expression:

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\sf{\dfrac{1\:-\:SinA}{1\:+\:SinA}\:=\:(SecA\:-\:<klux>TANA</klux>)^2}

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SoluTion:

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Taking RHS,

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CHANGING TanA and SecA in Sin and Cos.

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\longrightarrow \sf{(\dfrac{1}{CosA}\:-\:\dfrac{SinA}{CosA})^2}

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Taking LCM,

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\longrightarrow \sf{(\dfrac{1\:-\:SinA}{CosA})^2}

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Separating the SQUARES,

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\longrightarrow \sf{\dfrac{(1\:-\:SinA)^2}{Cos^{2} A}}

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We know that,

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\large{\boxed{\rm{\green{Cos^{2}\:A\:=\:1\:-\:Sin^2\:A}}}}

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\longrightarrow \sf{\dfrac{(1\:-\:SinA)(1\:-\:SinA)}{1\:-\:Sin^2\:A}}

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We also know that,

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\large{\boxed{\rm{\red{(\:a^2\:-\:b^2\:)\:=\:(a\:+\:b)(a\:-\:b)}}}}

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\longrightarrow \sf{\dfrac{(1\:-\:SinA)(1\:-\:SinA)}{(1\:+\:SinA)(1\:-\:SinA)}}

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\longrightarrow \sf{\dfrac{1\:-\:SinA}{1\:+\:SinA}}

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\longrightarrow LHS

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Hence PROVED!



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