Let x=cost∫0(z2−1)cos2zdz and y=sin2t∫0z2(sin2√1−z)dz,t∈(0 – InterviewSolution

1.	Let x=cost∫0(z2−1)cos2zdz and y=sin2t∫0z2(sin2√1−z)dz,t∈(0,π2), then dydx is equal to
Answer» Let $x = cos t \int 0 (z^{2} - 1) {cos}^{2} z d z$ and $y = {sin}^{2} t \int 0 z^{2} ({sin}^{2} \sqrt{1 - z}) d z, t \in (0, \frac{π}{2}),$ then $\frac{d y}{d x}$ is equal to

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