1.

A consumer consumes only two goods. For the consumer to be in equilibrium why must Marginal Rate of Substitution between the two goods must be equal to the ratio of prices of these two goods? Is it enough to ensure equilibrium? OR A consumer consumes only two goods. Why is the consumer said to be in equilibrium when he buys only that combination of the two goods which lies at that point on the Indifference curve where the budget line is tangent to the indifference curve? Explain. Use diagram.

Answer»

A consumer consumes only two goods. For the consumer to be in equilibrium why must Marginal Rate of Substitution between the two goods must be equal to the ratio of prices of these two goods? Is it enough to ensure equilibrium?

OR

A consumer consumes only two goods. Why is the consumer said to be in equilibrium when he buys only that combination of the two goods which lies at that point on the Indifference curve where the budget line is tangent to the indifference curve? Explain. Use diagram.



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